I am confused about this piece of text on rational exponents!

algebra-precalculus

I was reading the free book by Stitz and Zeager, Pre-requisites for precalculus, Chapter 0 section 0.2 (page 32):
https://www.stitz-zeager.com/

https://www.stitz-zeager.com/ch_0_links.pdf

Image of the confusing text

It presents a case where rational exponents cannot be used with the power rule.

First they state this:
$(a^{\frac{2}{3}})^{\frac{3}{2}}$ where using the power rule we get $(a^{\frac{2}{3}})^{\frac{3}{2}} = a^{\frac{2}{3}.\frac{3}{2}} = a^1 = a $

Then they say suppose a = -1:

$-1^{\frac{2}{3}} = (\sqrt[3]{-1})^2 = (-1)^2 = 1$ thus $(-1^{\frac{2}{3}})^{\frac{3}{2}} = 1^{\frac{3}{2}} = 1$ and therefore $(a^{\frac{2}{3}})^{\frac{3}{2}} \neq a $

but then in the last sentence says that the power rule is true and the reader should show this?

I am therefore confused and would appreciate anyone trying to explain better what the authors mean here? Is it true or is it not true for rational exponents?

Best Answer

They have altered the order of the exponents in the last sentence. It can be shown for $a=-1$ as: $$a^{\frac 32}=(-1)^{\frac 32}=((-1)^3)^{\frac 12}=(-1)^{\frac 12}=i$$ Now, $$i^{\frac 23}=(i^2)^{\frac 13}=(-1)^{\frac 13}=-1=a$$ The proof for general negative $a$ is of the same flavor. It is interesting to note that the authors seem to ignore the complex roots $-\omega, -\omega^2$. I can't seem to understand why.

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