I think it is obvious that the supremum of an interval of the form $[a,b)$ is $b$ but I am trying to show it myself.
My try:
$b$ is an upper bound, if it is a supremum, then $\exists x \in [a,b)$ s.t. $x+\epsilon>b\geq x$ for some $\epsilon>0$ (epsilon characterization of the supremum)
Assume it is not, then $\forall x \in [a,b)$, $ x+\epsilon\leq b <x$ but this means that $b$ isn't an upper bound, contradiction. Thus, $b$ must be the supremum of the interval. (also, one can notice that the inequality would imply that $\epsilon<0$ which is another contradiction)
Any help in verifying my error, correcting it, or suggesting better ways to prove this is appreciated.
Best Answer
Your proof is confusingly written.
Problem 1:
This is not the epsilon characterization of the supremum. The characterization says that:
This is completely different from what you wrote. Most importantly, the definition of supremum says something is true for every epsilon, not "for some $\epsilon > 0$ which is what you wrote.
Problem 2:
You wrote "$\forall x \in b$", which makes no sense. $b$ is not a set, so $x\in b$ is nonsensical.