How is “so” correctly translated into predicate logic

logiclogic-translationnotationpredicate-logic

I have come across an exercise that asks to have “There is only one ball, so you need to have it” translated into predicate logic. Using the predicates $\text{Ball}(x)$ for $x$ is a ball and $\text{Have}(x, y)$ for $x$ must have $y$, I translated it this way:

$$\exists x((\text{Ball}(x) \land \forall y(\text{Ball}(y) \rightarrow (x = y))) \rightarrow \text{Have}(\text{you}, x))$$

The answer in the back, on the other hand, is:

$$\exists x(\text{Ball}(x) \land \forall y(\text{Ball}(y) \rightarrow (x = y)) \land \text{Have}(\text{you}, x))$$

I want to know whether I am wrong or not, and why. The exercise and answer can be found here
https://textbooks.open.tudelft.nl/textbooks/catalog/view/53/144/370-1, on page $51$ (exercise $8$) and page $189$ respectively.

Thank you.

Best Answer

I like neither translation.

Yours is certainly not right, since your statement would be rather vacuously true if there exists something that is not a ball: that something would make $Ball(x)$ False, hence the whole antecedent of the conditional false, and therefore the whole conditional true.

But the one offered by the book merely says: "There exists one ball and you need to have it" ... which really doesn't capture the 'so' part. Indeed, the statement given is really an expression of an argument: [This], therefore [that]. And there is really no truth-functional connective or other nice way to logically represent a 'therefore' or 'so'.

Of course, what you can do is to represent this argument using two statements in predicate logic, and use the mathematical 'therefore' in between:

$\exists x (Ball(x) \land \forall y (Ball(y) \to x = y))$

$\therefore$ $\exists x (Ball(x) \land Have(you,x))$