Here is a more general framework for your question. Suppose you have functions $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. You compare their growth rates by looking at $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$$
In your problem, $f(x)=3^x$ and $g(x)=2^x$, and this limit is $\infty$, which is what we mean when we say "$3^x$ grows faster than $2^x$."
Then you ask: why does taking the logarithm not yield the same order? (In other words, you're asking: if $f(x)$ grows faster than $g(x)$, why doesn't $\log f(x)$ grow faster than $\log g(x)$? Or, in yet other words: why don't logs preserve the asymptotic ordering?) The answer is that you must now consider $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\log f(x)}{\log g(x)}$$
And there is no nice way to relate the first limit to this limit, in general.
But in your special case when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are exponentials, taking the log gives first-order polynomials, which have the same growth rate: $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\log 3^x}{\log 2^x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x\log 3}{x\log 2}=\frac{\log 3}{\log 2}$$
(Since the limit is finite and non-zero, the new functions have the same growth rate.)
EDIT
No, pure exponentials are not the only family of functions that has this property. Consider $f(x)=x\cdot 3^x$ and $g(x)=x\cdot 2^x$. These functions have different growth rates, because $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x\cdot 3^x}{x\cdot 2^x}=\infty$$
But their logs, $\log x+x\log 3$ and $\log x+x\log 2$, have the same growth rates, because
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\log x+x\log 3}{\log x+x\log 2}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\frac{1}{x}+\log 3}{\frac{1}{x}+\log 2}=\frac{\log 3}{\log 2}$$
In fact, as this example suggests, any function that is the product of a bunch of functions all of which have growth rate at at most exponential will work: their logarithms will have the same growth rate. Take $f(x)=(\log_3 x)(x^3-4x^2+1)3^x$ and $g(x)=(\log x)(x^2)2^x$ for example. These functions have different growth rates, again, but their logarithms have the same growth rate. The logarithm turns the multiplicative structure into an additive structure dominated by a first-order polynomial.
Let $f(n) = n^{\log n}$. Then for any $k$ we have
$$ \frac{n^k}{f(n)} = n^{k-\log n} \to 0 $$
that is $n^k \in o(f)$, any $k$.
Moreover, for any $k$ with $p_k(n)=n^k$, we have
$$ f(p_k(n)) = f(n^k) = n^{k\log n^k} = n^{k^2\log n} = 2^{k^2\log^2 n}$$
which is $o(a^n)$ for any $a > 1$, as $a^n = 2^{n\log a}$.
Best Answer
$f(n)$ catches up with $g(n)$ at $n$ equal to around $10^{52}$. You need some patience! "...but does that also hold for a $\log$ set into power?": Yes.