Problem
Given:
- $n$ slots, numbered from $1\ldots n$
- $k$ objects
- a slot can be filled by one object
what is the probability that a slot at some position $i$ to be filled?
Some Notation
For a visual representation we can denote slot at position $i$ with:
- $\square_i$ if it is empty or
- $\blacksquare_i$ if it is filled
A sample configuration can be:
$$
(\blacksquare_1, \blacksquare_2, \square_3, \ldots, \square_n)
$$
where slots $1$ and $2$ are filled, and other $k-2$ slots somewhere between $4$ and $n-1$.
A special configuration is:
$$
(\blacksquare_1, \blacksquare_2, \ldots, \blacksquare_k, \square_{k+1}\ldots, \square_n)
$$
where slots from $1$ to $k$ are filled, and the following are empty.
.
Therefore we are interested in the value of $\Pr(\blacksquare_i)$
A possible approach
We can count all the possible configurations by with combinations, by thinking how can we pick $k$ numbers from $(1, 2, \ldots, n)$ irregardles of the order, the picked number is the filled slot:
$$
\texttt{total} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}
$$
How would we count the ones that are match the $\blacksquare_i$?
By just removing the $i$ slot and ending up with $n-1$ slots and $k-1$ fills, and doing the same calculation as above, only on a smaller set $(1, 2, \ldots, i-1, i+1, \ldots, n)$:
$$
\texttt{remaining} = \frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-1-k+1)!}
$$
If we divide them we get our result.
$$
\frac{\texttt{remaining}}{\texttt{total}} = \ldots = \frac{k}{n}
$$
Discussion
I am having a hard time understanding intuitively the final result:
$$
\Pr(\blacksquare_i) = \frac{k}{n}
$$
-
is this the most intuitive way of explaining that the position is not relevant? (maybe by counting the probabilities of each position?)
-
is there some math concept we can use here?
-
how can this problem be reducible to:
What is the probability of a random slot to be filled
or, if we like to think of balls in a bag, that come in 2 colors, white, $\square$, and black, $\blacksquare$ the question would be:
What is the probability of the extracted ball to be black
Thanks!
Best Answer
The intuition is such: you have $k$ balls and $n-k$ voids, and you need to pick what to put at slot $i$. You have $k$ objects that will make it full, so the probability is indeed $\tfrac{k}{n}$. Due to symmetry, the answer is independent of $i$.
Choosing the slots are random will not change this result, as they are all symmetric and their names don't matter.