Gelfand-Kolmogorov Theorem for the space $C(X)$ with compact $X$: ring vs algebra version.

abstract-algebracategory-theoryfunctional-analysisgeneral-topologyproof-verification

A theorem by Gelfand and Kolmogorov comes in two different guises, depending on which structure we consider on $C(X)$, namely if that of unital commutative ring or that of algebra.

Ring version
Let X and Y be compact spaces. Then, $C(X)$ and $C(Y)$ are isomorphic as rings if, and only if, $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic.
Moreover, every rings isomorphism $T : C(Y)→ C(X)$ is of the form $Tf = f\circ h$ where $h:X →Y$ is a homeomorphism.

Identically, we have:

Algebra version
Let X and Y be compact spaces. Then, $C(X)$ and $C(Y)$ are isomorphic as algebras if, and only if, $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic.
Moreover, every algebra isomorphism $T : C(Y)→ C(X)$ is of the form $Tf = f\circ h$ where $h:X →Y$ is a homeomorphism.

Now these two versions are claimed equivalent, but I cannot find an explicit proof of the fact, nonetheless I think the equivalence is based on the following

Lemma:
Each nonzero ring homomorphims $\omega:C(Y)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is surjective and for each constant $c\in\mathbb{R}$, letting $\delta\equiv 1$,
we have $\omega(c\delta)=c$.

  • Is this sufficient to prove that any ring homomorphism $\lambda: C(X)\rightarrow C(Y)$ is also an algebra homorphism? If not how to prove it?

Morover, I think the two equivalent versions of the theorem have a categorical rephrasing: basically we have two contravariant functors:
$C(−):Top→ComRing$
$C(−):Top→ComAlg $

  • Can we say something more about the categorical interpretation of
    this theorem?
  • Has the Lemma or whatsoever the result needed to prove the
    equivalence, or the equivalence itself, a categorical interpretation
    too?

Best Answer

I recalled a reference from a classic:

Exercise 1I in Gillman and Jerison's book Rings of continuous functions says:

let $\mathfrak{t}$ be a (ring) homomorphism from $C(Y)$ or $C^\ast(Y)$ (bounded continuous real-valued functions) into $C(X)$.

  1. $\mathfrak{t}\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{r}\cdot \mathfrak{t}\mathbf{1}$ for each $ r \in \Bbb R$ (where $\mathbf{r}$ is the constant function with value $r$). With hint

For each $x \in X$, the mapping $x \to (\mathfrak{t}\mathbf{r})(x)$ is a homomorphism from $\Bbb R$ into $\Bbb R$, and hence is either the zero homomorphism or the identity (0.22). So $(\mathfrak{t}\mathbf{1})(x) = 0$ or $1$.

  1. $\mathfrak{t}$ is an algebra homomorphism, i.e. $\mathfrak{t}(\mathbf{r}g) = \mathbf{r}\cdot \mathfrak{t}(g)$ for all $ r \in \Bbb R$ and $g \in C(Y)$.

I'll refrain from commenting on the categorial part.