Probability – How Gamblers Ruin Difference Equation Predicts Goals with p=1/2

markov chainsprobabilitysequences-and-series

I was reading about the gamblers ruin problem here, and they approach it with a difference equation.

The issue is that when I plug $p=\frac 1 2$, I get that the probability that the gambler will ever reach his goal becomes zero which is clearly not true.

Here is how I'm getting that:

The gambler starts with $a$ dollars and aims to get to $c$ dollars. He tosses a coin that has a probability $p$ of heads until he reaches either $c$ or $0$. The difference equation is given by:

$$s_c(a) = p s_c(a+1)+ (1-p)s_c(a-1)$$

Then, assuming $s_c(a) = z^n$ we get the characteristic polynomial:

$$pz^2-z+(1-p) = 0$$

We get the two solutions: $z = 1$, $z=\frac 1 p -1$.

So the general solution becomes:

$$s_c(a) = c_1 + c_2\left(\frac 1 p – 1\right)^a$$

Then we plug in the boundary conditions, one of which is $s_c(0)=0$.

Now here is where things get weird. If we plug $p =\frac 1 2$, the equation becomes:

$$s_c(a) = c_1$$

And since we know $s_c(0)=0$, this means $c_1 = 0$. So this implies that for $p=\frac 1 2$, $s_c(a)=0$. But this is obviously not true. What am I missing here?

Best Answer

What you are missing is that if $p=\frac{1}{2}$, then the two roots of the characteristic polynomial coincide. The general solution becomes $$s_c(n)=c_11^n + c_2n1^n=c_1+nc_2$$