Finding homomorphism between rings

abstract-algebraring-theory

I am asked to show that $\Bbb{R}[x]/((x+1)x)$ has zero divisors but no nipolent elements. So I decided to start with finding homomorphism $\phi\colon\Bbb{R}[x]\to\Bbb{R}$ such that $\ker(\phi)=((x+1)x)$ Normaly I would take evaluation homomorphism, but I cannot evaluate a polynomial at $x=0$ and $x=1$ at the same time. So what is the trick here?

Reamark:
((x+1)x) is an ideal generated by this polynomial

Best Answer

We will denote by $\overline{f}$ the image of $f\in\mathbb{R}[x]$ under the canonical projection onto the quotient $A=\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle (x+1)x\rangle$.

Indeed, $A$ has nontrivial zero divisors e.g. $\overline{x+1}$ and $\overline{x}$.

Furthermore, $A$ has no nontrivial nilpotent elements. Indeed, let $\overline{f}$ be a nontrivial nilpotent element. Then $f^n$ is divisible by $(x+1)x$ for some positive integer $n$. Since $x+1$ and $x$ are both prime in $\mathbb{R}[x]$, and they have greatest common divisor $1$, $f$ must be divisible by $(x+1)x$.

Another way to see this is via the following isomorphisms. $$A\cong \mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x+ 1\rangle\oplus\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x\rangle\cong \mathbb{R}\oplus\mathbb{R}.$$ The first isomorphism is given by the Chinese remainder theorem, and the second isomorphism is induced by evaluation homomorphisms $\mathbb{R}[x]\to\mathbb{R}$ (at $-1$ for the first component and $0$ for the second).