Fiber of a morphism of spectra

algebraic-geometrycommutative-algebra

Let $f:R\to S$ be a ring homomorphism, and for a fixed prime ideal $\mathfrak p\subset R$, let $p:R\to k(\mathfrak p)$ be the canonical homomorphism, $k(\mathfrak p)$ being the fraction field of $R/\mathfrak p$. Take the following (pushout) square: $\require{AMScd}$ $$\begin{CD}
R@>>p> k(\mathfrak p)\\
@VVfV @VjVV\\
S@>i>>S\otimes_R k(\mathfrak p)
\end{CD}$$
and consider its image (in $\rm Top$) under the functor $\rm Spec$ (whose action I'll denote by $-^*$). So $p^*$ is injective, being its domain a singleton ($R\neq 0$), and also $i^*$ is injective: $i=l\circ q$, where $q:S\to S\otimes_R R/\mathfrak p$ is surjective, and $l: S\otimes _R R/\mathfrak p\to S\otimes_R k(\mathfrak p)$ is a localization (respect to the subset of elements of the form $1\otimes \bar r$, $r\notin \mathfrak p$) hence $q^*,l^*$ are injective. Until now, we can say that $i^*$ injects its domain into the fiber of $\mathfrak p\in \operatorname{Spec} R$; but I don't understand how to deduce the most important part, i.e. that the image of $i^*$ is the entire fiber (and so the square in $\rm Top$ is a pullback). I apologize for the third question of the same kind in two days, but this passage (that I found on Clark's Commutative Algebra, 4.3) is where my confusion actually started. Thanks for your patience

Best Answer

Let's translate this back into commutative algebra. Explicitly you need to show that

$$\{\mathfrak{q}\in\operatorname{Spec}S\mid f^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}) = \mathfrak{p}\}\subseteq i^\ast(\operatorname{Spec}S\otimes_R k(\mathfrak{p}));$$

i.e., that for every prime ideal $\mathfrak{q}\subseteq S$ which pulls back to $\mathfrak{p}\subseteq R,$ there exists a prime ideal $\mathfrak{Q}\subseteq S\otimes_R k(\mathfrak{p})$ with $i^{-1}(\mathfrak{Q}) = \mathfrak{q}.$

Here are some hints to help you finish this argument; the complete details are below under the spoiler tags.

Hint 1: Break the problem down into showing that $\mathfrak{q}$ is the inverse image of some prime $\mathfrak{q}'\subseteq S\otimes_R R/\mathfrak{p}$, and that this $\mathfrak{q}'$ is the inverse image of a prime $\mathfrak{Q}\subseteq S\otimes_R k(\mathfrak{p}).$

Hint 2:

Recall that if $A$ is a ring and if $I\subseteq A$ is an ideal of $A,$ then there is a bijection between prime ideals of $A/I$ and prime ideals of $A$ containing $I.$

Hint 3:

Recall also that if $A$ is a ring and $T\subseteq A$ is a multiplicative subset, that there is a bijection between prime ideals of $T^{-1}A$ and prime ideals of $A$ not meeting $T.$

Full solution:

Take $\mathfrak{q}\subseteq S$ such that $f^{-1}(\mathfrak{q})=\mathfrak{p}.$ We know that $f^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}) = \mathfrak{p},$ so that $\mathfrak{q}\supseteq\mathfrak{p}S.$ By hint 2, there exists a prime ideal $\mathfrak{q}'\subseteq S\otimes_R R/\mathfrak{p}$ with $q^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}') = \mathfrak{q}.$ The explicit form of the bijection mentioned tells us that $\mathfrak{q}' = q(\mathfrak{q}).$

Following hint 3 above, we must show that that $q(\mathfrak{q})\cap U = \emptyset.$ Observe that $$U = \{1\otimes\overline{r}\mid r\not\in\mathfrak{p}\} = \{f(r)\otimes 1\mid r\not\in\mathfrak{p}\} = \{q(f(r))\mid r\not\in\mathfrak{p}\}\subseteq (q\circ f)\left(R\setminus\mathfrak{p}\right).$$ Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists $r\in R$ such that $1\otimes \overline{r}\in q(\mathfrak{q})\cap U.$ Then there exists $s\in \mathfrak{q}$ such that $q(s) = q(f(r)).$ In other words, there would be an $s\in\mathfrak{q}\cap f(R\setminus\mathfrak{p}),$ which is impossible since $f^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}) = \mathfrak{p}.$ This completes the proof.