Extending the Lebesgue Measure

lebesgue-measuremartingalesmeasure-theory

In D.Williams Probability with Martingales, we define the Lebesgue Measure as follows:

We have a set function $\mu_0 = \sum_{k \leq r} (b_k-a_k)$ where the sigma algebra over (0,1] is defined to be the collection of intervals of the form $F = (a_1,b_1] \text{ } \cup \text{ } … \text{ } \cup \text{ } (a_r,b_r]$.

We then use caratheodory's extension theorem to extend this set function to the Lebesgue measure on $((0,1], \mathcal{B}(0,1])$.

Then, Williams says, to obtain the Lebesgue measure on $([0,1], \mathcal{B}[0,1])$, we need to define the Lebesgue measure of the set {0} as zero. My question is why do we have to do this?

Best Answer

The algebra $\Sigma_0$ is defined in the following way. $F \in \Sigma_0$ if $F$ can be written as $F = (a_1,b_1] \cap ... \cap (a_r,b_r].$ $\Sigma_0$ defined like that is an algebra on (0,1] and this allows to use later the theorem 1.7 to extend $(\Sigma_0,\mu_0)$ to $(\Sigma,\mu).$

Sets of the type $F = [a_1,b_1] \cap ... \cap [a_r,b_r]$ don't form an algebra on $[0,1]$. For example, if we have $E = [0,1/2],$ then $E^c = (1/2,1] \notin \Sigma_0.$ So you will not be able to use theorem 1.7 and define $\mu$ on (the $\sigma$-algebra) $\Sigma,$ which is the goal.