Explanation of a step in an intuitive proof of Leibniz rule

calculusproof-explanation

I was watching this video on an intuitive proof of the Leibniz rule: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=22JXq09-cqM . I can't understand the step where dt is moved outside of the integral sign. How and why does this happen?

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Best Answer

From what I understand from the video, it's only a heuristic technique of computing the derivative of the integral $I(t) := \int_{x_1}^{x_2} f(x, t) dx.$ Thus, it is meant to be taken with a grain (or rather a full tablespoon) of salt. It is not rigorous. In his video, $dt$ signifies a finite quantity, however small, thus a constant, it is not to be taken as the $1-$form $dx$ (or measure, what have you, choose your preferred way of looking at integrals), thus can be safely moved outside the integral.

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