This question is related to this question: Given K balls and N buckets what is the expected number of occupied buckets
The question is:
Given $K$ balls and $N$ buckets how do you calculate the expected number of buckets with at least $1$ ball. Each ball is put in a bucket chosen at random with a uniform probability distribution. Assume also $K ≤ N$.
The first part of the answer goes like this:
I will assume that we are throwing balls sequentially towards the buckets, with at any stage each bucket equally likely to receive a ball, and independence between throws. Then the probability that bucket $i$ has no balls in it after $K$ balls have been thrown is equal to
$$\left(\frac{N-1}{N}\right)^K.$$
I had a different way of calculating this probability: counting the number of ways the $K$ balls can be put into $N-1$ buckets (all except bucket $i$), and dividing that by the number of ways $K$ balls can be put into $N$ buckets. I can use stars and bars to calculate each. Why does this method not work in this case? I'm a bit confused.
Best Answer
First off, you've mixed up $N$ and $K$ between the given answer and your method. For the rest of this answer, I'll assume you meant
For this to make any sense to compute the probability, all the outcomes you're counting need to be equally likely. Is this true? Well, let's just take $N=2$ and $K=2$ for example. Using your logic, the outcomes are
Are these equally likely to occur? No. Outcomes 1 and 3 each occur with probability $1/4,$ but outcome 2 occurs with probability $1/2.$