Examining an inequality involving exponential functions and hyperbolic cosine

algebra-precalculuscalculusexponential functioninequality

Let $a,b$ be real numbers with $0 < a < b$.

Problem: I would like to prove/disprove that $$ \frac{a \cdot 2^x+ b \cdot 2^{-x}}{a+b} \leq \cosh(x \log{2})
$$
is true for all real $x \geq 0$.

Approach:

  • I defined a function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ with $$ f(x) = \cosh(x \log{2}) – \frac{a \cdot 2^x+ b \cdot 2^{-x}}{a+b}.
    $$
    In order to show the inequality, it suffices to show $f(x) \geq 0$ for all $x \geq 0$.
  • I tried to plot the function for some chosen parameters like $a=1$ and $b=2$. In all those cases the function was non-negative, so I suppose that this inequality is true.
  • It is $f(0) = 1-1 = 0 \geq 0$.
  • Now $f$ is differentiable, so I computed
    $$ f'(x) = \frac{\log{2}}{2(a+b)} \big(a (2^x – 2^{-x} – 2^{x+1}) + b(2^x-2^{-x}+2^{-x+1} ) \big). $$
  • I would be done if I could show that $f'(x) \geq 0$ for all $x \geq 0$, so $f$ is monotonically increasing and we get our desired result. However, I can not see how this can be shown.

Could you please help me with this problem? That would be nice, thank you in advance!

Best Answer

Consider the following:

$$2^{x}-2^{-x}-2^{x+1}=2^x-2^{-x}-2\cdot2^x= -2^x-2^{-x}=-2(2^{x-1}+2^{-x-1}) = - 2 \left(\frac{2^x+2^{-x}}{2}\right) $$

Hence $$2^{x}-2^{-x}-2^{x+1} = - 2 \left(\frac{2^x+2^{-x}}{2}\right) = -2 \cosh(x \log 2)$$

Similarly $$2^{x}-2^{-x}+2^{1-x}=2^x-2^{-x}+2\cdot2^{-x}= 2^x+2^{-x}=2(2^{x-1}+2^{-x-1}) = 2 \left(\frac{2^x+2^{-x}}{2}\right) $$

Hence

$$2^{x}-2^{-x}+2^{1-x}= 2 \left(\frac{2^x+2^{-x}}{2}\right) = 2 \cosh(x\log 2)$$

So with this the derivative is: \begin{align} f'(x)&= \frac{\log 2}{2 (a+b)} \left[-2a \cosh(x \log 2) + 2b \cosh(x \log 2)\right] \\ &= \frac{\log 2}{ a+b} \left[-a \cosh(x \log 2) + b \cosh(x \log 2)\right]\\ &=\log 2\frac{b-a}{a+b} \cosh(x\log2) \end{align}

with $\log 2 >0$, $\frac{b-a}{a+b}>0$ since $a<b$, and $\cosh(x \log 2)>0$ since $\cosh$ is non-negative.

Therefore

$$f'(x)>0$$

as you're expecting.

Related Question