The Theorem:
Every open subset $O \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ is a union of open intervals.
The problem asks for a particular method of proof:
"Complete the proof by showing that $O = \displaystyle\bigcup_{x \in O} (x – r_x, x + r_x)$."
My work:
By the definition of open, we know that, for all $x \in O$, there exists an $r_x > 0$ such that $(x – r_x, x + r_x) \in O$. Since this is true of all $x \in O$, then $O$ precisely is the union of all such intervals. Thus, we have $O = \displaystyle\bigcup_{x \in O} (x – r_x, x + r_x)$.
My question:
Does this work? The result seemed obvious and the proof trivial – enough so to make me nervous and think I must have begged a question somewhere.
Best Answer
Two issues: