$1$. How to prove that for $n\in\mathbb{N}, a\in(0,1)$ one have
$$f(a,0):=\int_{0<x_1,\cdots,x_n<1,\ 0<(x_1\cdots x_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}<a}dx_1\cdots dx_n=a^n \sum_{k-0}^{n-1}\frac{(-n\log(a))^k}{k!}$$
This identity arises from probability theory, but I wonder if it's solvable using calculus alone.
$2$. Moreover, for $p\in \mathbb{R}$, can we give a closed form to the generalized
$$f(a,p):=\int_{0<x_1<1,\ \cdots,\ 0<x_n<1,\ 0<\left(\frac1n \sum _{i=1}^n x_i^p\right)^\frac{1}{p}<a}dx_1\cdots dx_n$$
This one is rather open. Thanks in advance!
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