I am looking at the following question from my undergraduate Number Theory textbook:
Show that if p,q are different odd primes, and if gcd(p,q)=1, then a$\Phi$(pq)/2 $\equiv$ $1$ mod $pq$.
So far, the approach I have taken is trying to split up a$\Phi$(pq)/2 = (a$\Phi$(p)/2)$\Phi$(q) and apply Euler's theorem but I don't think I am really getting anywhere.
Any help would be greatly appreciated, thank you!
Best Answer
Note: If $\gcd(a,pq) \neq 1$, then clearly $a^{ \phi (pq) / 2 } \neq 1 \pmod{pq}$. So, I'm assuming that $\gcd(a,pq) = 1$.
Hint: $\phi (pq) = (p-1)(q-1)$, where both of the terms on the right are even, since they are odd primes.