Error in the proof of $\textit{Sheaves in Geometry and Logic}$ Lemma VI.3.8 – Cohen Poset satisfies Countable Chain Condition

forcingorder-theorytopos-theory

Context

Chapter VI sections 1-3 in Sheaves deals with proving that there is a certain Grothendieck topos $Sh_{\neg \neg}(\mathbb{P})$ in which the continuum hypothesis is false in the internal logic.

Section 3 deals with "the preservation of cardinal inequalities". There is a canonical inclusion functor $\hat{-} : Set \to Sh_{\neg \neg}(\mathbb{P})$ which preserves monomorphisms. The preservation of cardinal inequalities states that if there is no surjection $A \to B$ (where $A$ and $B$ are infinite), then $\ulcorner$there is no epimorphism $\hat{A} \to \hat{B} \urcorner$ holds in the internal logic of the topos. Combining this with the fact that the $\hat{}$ functor preserves monomorphisms, we get that if $|A| < |B|$ is a strict cardinal inequality in the category of sets, then the strict inequality $|\hat{A}| < |\hat{B}|$ holds in the internal logic of the topos. In order to prove this, we must prove that the "countable chain condition" holds for $\mathbb{P}$.

Note that this argument contains the same mathematical content as traditional set-theoretic forcing (but it places forcing within a wider context of Grothendieck toposes and autological toposes in general, which are the sorts of toposes which can give rise to models of IZF).

Mathematical Background

We fix a set $B$.

The "Cohen poset" $\mathbb{P}$ consists of pairs $(F_p, p)$, where $F_p \subseteq B \times \mathbb{N}$ is finite and $p : F_p \to 2$. Here, $2 = \{0, 1\}$. For brevity, we often identify $(F_p, p)$ with $p$. The order is reverse inclusion.

In other words, given $p, q \in \mathbb{P}$, we have $p \leq q$ if and only if both $F_q \subseteq F_p$ and also $q = p|_{F_q}$.

The elements of $\mathbb{P}$ are known as "conditions". Two conditions $f, g \in \mathbb{P}$ are said to be "incompatible" if and only if there is no $h \in \mathbb{P}$ such that $h \leq f$ and $h \leq g$. It's easy to show that $f$ and $g$ are incompatible if and only if there is some $x \in F_f \cap F_g$ such that $f(x) \neq g(x)$.

Problem Statement + Author's Attempt at a Proof

Section 3 lemma 8 states

On the Cohen poset $\mathbb{P}$, any set of incompatible conditions is countable.

In other words, $\mathbb{P}$ satisfies the countable chain condition. This is the critical step in proving that cardinal inequalities in the category of sets are preserved in the category $Sh_{\neg \neg}(\mathbb{P})$.

However, the proof given by Mac Lane and Moerdijk has a major error.

Proof: Let $A$ be a set of incompatible conditions. Write $A_n = \{q \in A \mid |F_q| = n\}$. Then $A = \bigcup\limits_{n \in \mathbb{N}} A_n$. Since the countable union of countable sets is countable, it suffices to show that each $A_n$ is countable.

The base case $n = 0$ is immediate. Now suppose we've shown that any set of mutually incompatible conditions, each of $n – 1$ elements, is countable, and we wish to show $A_n$ is countable, where $n > 0$.

For each $m \in \mathbb{N}$, write $A_{n, m} = \{q \in A_n \mid \exists b \in B, (b, m) \in F_q\}$. Since $n > 0$, we have $A_n = \bigcup\limits_{m \in \mathbb{N}} A_{n, m}$, so it suffices to show that each $A_{n, m}$ is countable.

Pick, for each $q \in A_{n, m}$, some $b_q \in B$ such that $(b_q, m) \in F_q$. Define $A_{n, m, i} = \{q \in A_{n, m} \mid q(b_q, m) = i\}$. Since $A_{n, m} = \bigcup\limits_{i \in \{0, 1\}} A_{n, m, i}$, it suffices to show that each $A_{n, m, i}$ is countable.

Since for any $m$ and $i$, the elements of $A_{n, m, i}$ are pairwise incompatible, so is the set of their restrictions $R_{n, m, i} = \{p|_{F_p \setminus \{(b_p, m)\}} \mid p \in A_{n, m, i}\}$. $R_{n, m, i}$ is a set of countable conditions, each of which has $n – 1$ elements, so $R_{n, m, i}$ is countable by the inductive hypothesis. Therefore, $A_{n, m, i}$ is also countable. $\square$

The Problem with the Proof

The key flaw is that $R_{n, m, i}$ is not necessarily a set of incompatible conditions.

Consider, for example, $F_p = \{(x, 0), (y, 0)\}$ with $p(x, 0) = 0$ and $p(y, 0) = 1$. Consider also $F_q = \{(x, 0), (z, 0)\}$ with $q(x, 0) = 1$ and $q(z, 0) = 0$. We are supposing that $x, y, z$ are pairwise disjoint elements of $B$ here. Note that since $p(x, 0) \neq q(x, 0)$, we see that $p$ and $q$ are incompatible. Let $A = \{p, q\}$, which is a set of incompatible conditions. Then $A_{2, 0} = \{p, q\}$. We pick $b_p = x$ and $b_q = z$. Then $A_{2, 0, 0} = \{p, q\}$. But note that $q|_{F_q \setminus \{(b_q, 0)\}}$ and $p|_{F_p \setminus \{(b_p, 0)\}}$ are distinct, yet compatible (they are compatible since their domains do not overlap). Therefore, $R_{2, 0, 0}$ has two distinct compatible conditions. So the proof is incorrect.

The question now is,

Can the proof be rewritten to work?

Best Answer

Yes, the proof can be rewritten to work.

New proof:

Lemma: for all $n$, if $A \subseteq \mathbb{P}$ is a set of incompatible conditions, and if for all $q \in A$, $|F_q| = n$, then $A$ is countable.

Proof: we proceed by induction on $n$. The base case $n = 0$ is trivial, since there is only one $q \in \mathbb{P}$ such that $|F_q| = 0$.

For the inductive step, we suppose that for all sets $B$ of incompatible conditions, each with $k$ elements, $B$ is countable.

We now consider a set $A$ of incompatible conditions, each with $k + 1$ elements. If $A$ is empty, then we're done. Otherwise, take some $p \in A$, and enumerate $F_p = \{x_0, \ldots, x_k\}$.

For each $j \leq k$, define $S_j = \{q \in A \mid x_j \in F_q$ and $q(x_j) \neq p(x_j)\}$. Then $A = \{p\} \cup \bigcup\limits_{i = 0}^k S_i$, so it suffices to show that each $S_i$ is countable.

Now for each $j \leq k$, define $R_j = \{q|_{F_q \setminus \{x_j\}} \mid q \in S_j\}$. Note that the restriction map $q \mapsto q|_{F_q \setminus \{x_j\}} : S_j \to R_j$ is a bijection, since we can recover $q$ from $q|_{F_q \setminus \{x_j\}}$ because we know that $q(x_j) \neq p(x_j)$, so there's only one possible value for $q(x_j)$. So it suffices to prove that each $R_j$ is countable.

Now given two conditions $r \neq q \in S_j$, we know that $r$ and $q$ are incompatible. Therefore, there is some $w \in F_q \cap F_r$ such that $q(w) \neq r(w)$. But note that $q(x_j) = r(x_j)$, and therefore we have $w \neq x_j$. That is, $w \in (F_q \setminus \{x_j\}) \cap (F_r \setminus \{x_j\})$. Therefore, $w$ witnesses that $q|_{F_q \setminus \{x_j\}}$ and $r|_{F_r \setminus \{x_j\}}$ are incompatible. So $R_j$ is a set of incompatible conditions, each of size $k$. Therefore, $R_j$ is countable by the inductive hypothesis.

Corollary: for all sets $A \subseteq \mathbb{P}$ of incompatible conditions, $A$ is countable.

Proof: $A = \bigcup\limits_{n \in \mathbb{N}} A_n$ where $A_n = \{p \in A \mid |F_p| = n\}$, and each $A_n$ is countable. So $A$ is also countable.

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