Equivalent definitions for quasiseparated morphisms

algebraic-geometryschemes

At the begining of Vakil's FOAG, section 8.3.1, the author says

A morphism $\pi: X \rightarrow Y$ is quasiseparated if for every affine open subset $U$ of $\mathrm{Y}, \pi^{-1}(\mathrm{U})$ is a quasiseparated scheme (§5.1.1). (Equivalently, the preimage of any quasicompact open subset is quasiseparated, although we won't worry about proving this. This is the definition that extends to other parts of geometry.)

I tried to prove the equivalence of the two definitions but failed. It's easy to prove that the second implies the first definition, since affine scheme is quasiseparated. I found this too, but it seems not help (and even gives a new defition): Two definitions of quasi-separated morphisms which may not be equivalent?

So how can we prove that if for every affine open subset $U$ of $\mathrm{Y}, \pi^{-1}(\mathrm{U})$ is a quasiseparated scheme, then the preimage of any quasicompact open subset is quasiseparated? Thank you very much.

Best Answer

You cannot prove it because it's false. Let $X$ be the infinite dimensional space over a field $k$, with double origin (in the edit there's a description of such a scheme; formally, one uses 01JC to construct $X$). The identity $1_X:X\to X$ is separated for it is monic (see 01L4); hence, it is a quasi-separated morphism. On the other hand, $X$ is quasi-compact for it is covered by the two copies of $\mathbb{A}_k^\infty$, which are quasi-compact (they are affine). However, $X$ is not quasi-separated (see this), so the preimage of $X$ along $1_X$ is a counterexample.

The correct thing is saying “a morphism of schemes is quasi-separated if and only if the inverse image of every open quasi-separated subset is quasi-separated and if and only if the inverse image of every open quasi-compact quasi-separated subset is quasi-separated.”