Equivalency of forms of Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem

metric-spacesreal-analysis

Apparently the result "every bounded infinite set in $\mathbb{R}^n$ has a limit point" is equivalent to the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem (every bounded sequence in $\mathbb{R}^n$ has a convergent subsequence): see e.g. Proving every bounded infinite set has a limit point without using Bolzano-Weierstrass or https://uccs.edu/goman/sites/goman/files/inline-files/A%20short%20proof%20of%20the%20Bolzano-Weierstrass%20Theorem.pdf. I am not sure how this can be, given that the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem gives you a convergent sequence in the bounded infinite set, but there is no guarantee that its limit would be a limit point (as here: Is the limit of a convergent sequence always a limit point of the sequence or the range of the sequence?). So can someone explain please? Thanks very much.

Best Answer

As pointed out in the comments, the difference has to do with sequences which are eventually constant. Let $(x_n)$ be a bounded sequence. If we consider the set $A = \{x\in\mathbb{R}^d: x=x_n\text{ for some $n$}\}$, we cannot immediately apply the limit-point formulation of Bolzano-Weierstrass. Indeed, this set $A$ is bounded since $(x_n)$ is a bounded sequence, but $A$ may only have finitely many points and thus not satisfy the "infinite set" part of the hypotheses.

I claim that if $A$ is a finite set, then any convergent subsequence $(x_{n_k})$ of $(x_n)$ is eventually constant. To do this, just pick $\epsilon>0$ so small that $B(a,\epsilon)\cap B(a',\epsilon)=\emptyset$ for any $a,a'\in A$ with $a\neq a'$ (which is possible since $A$ is finite). If $x_{n_k}\to x$ as $k\to\infty$, then $x\in A$ since $A$ is closed (it is a finite union of closed singletons). With $\epsilon$ as above, there should be $K$ such that $k\geq K$ implies $x_{n_k}\in B(x,\epsilon)$. Since $x_{n_k}\in A$ though, our choice of $\epsilon$ forces $x_{n_k} = x$. Thus $x_{n_k}=x$ for $k\geq K$, i.e., the subsequence was eventually constant.

If the set $A$ happens to be infinite, then we infer there is a limit point $x$, and by definition of limit point we may construct a (sub)sequence of points from $A$ which converges to $x$.