Equivalence relation and partition of set

equivalence-relations

Suppose that $X$ is some set and $\sim$ is an equivalence relation on $X$ and $X\neq \varnothing$. For each $x\in X$ define $$R(x):=\{y\in X: y\sim x\}$$ an equivalence class of $x$. One can show that if $R(x_1)\cap R(x_2)\neq \varnothing$ then $R(x_1)=R(x_2).$

I would like to understand why these equivalence classes form the partition of $X$. So I need to show that there exist $\{P_i\}_{i\in I}$ such that $P_i\cap P_j=\varnothing$ and $X=\cup_{i\in I}P_i$, right?

Intuitively, I know that they form partition but cannot prove it rigorously. I was wondering how to specify these partitioning sets explicitly.

Best Answer

The set of partitions is just $V = \{R(x) \mid x \in X\}$.

More formally, let $P_v = v$ for all $v \in V$. Note that $P_v \subseteq X$ for all $v \in V$. I claim that $\{P_v\}_{v \in V}$ is a partition.

There are three conditions that must be checked. First, we must show that $\forall v \in V \exists x \in P_v$. To show this, consider some $v \in V$. Write $v = R(x)$ for some $x$. Then $x \in v = P_v$.

The second condition is that $\bigcup\limits_{v \in V} P_v = X$. To show this, suppose we have some $x \in X$. Then $x \in R(x)$. Let $R(x) = v$. Then $x \in v = P_v$. Therefore, $x \in \bigcup\limits_{v \in V} P_v$. Thus, we see that $\bigcup\limits_{v \in V} P_v = X$.

Finally, the third condition is that for all $v_1, v_2 \in V$, if $\exists x \in P_{v_1} \cap P_{v_2}$, then $v_1 = v_2$. Suppose there is some $x \in P_{v_1} \cap P_{v_2}$. Then we see that $R(x) = v_1$. And we see that $R(x) = v_2$. Therefore, $v_1 = v_2$.

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