Elementary Set Theory – Encoding the First Element of an Ordered Pair

elementary-set-theory

Assuming we are working in axiomatic set theory, such as $ZFC$ or $NBG$ can we, for all ordered pairs $(x, y)$ find a function, call it $First$ such that $First((x, y))=x$ Is such a thing possible if we are using Kuratowski's definition of the ordered pair, namely $(x, y) = \{ \{x \}, \{ x, y \} \}$.
One thing that comes to mind is to take $First(t)=\bigcup\bigcap t$
Can we also generalize this? Like assuming an $n$-ordered tuple, call it y, can we define a predicate $P(y, m)$ such that it gives us the $m$-th component of $y$.

One way I thought about doing this is to completely disregard the Kuratowski definition and identify an $n$-ordered tuple as a function with its domain $n$, where as a set $n= \{ 0, 1, …, n – 1 \}$. Therefore, my predicate $P(y, m)$ is nothing but $y(m)$ with the assumption that $y$ is a function. This generalization would work for ordered tuples with arbitrary length, even infinite.

I feel like what I have done is cheating, so I am wondering if we can find a function $P(y, m)$ without appealing to the concept of functions and defining an ordered tuple with a Kuratowski-like definition or Wiener's definition.

Best Answer

So, to first answer your main question:

can we, for all ordered pairs $(x, y)$ find a monadic predicate, call it $\def\Fst{{\rm First}}\Fst$ such that $\Fst((x, y))=x$?

And the answer is, yes, absolutely. If someone put forth some notion of ordered pairs, and there was not some way of extracting the $x$ from $(x, y)$, we would tell them to go away and come back when they had something useful. So yes, we can do this with Kuratowski pairs. You can find the formulas in the Wikipedia article on “ordered pair”. As you surmised, $\Fst(p)$ is just $\bigcup\bigcap p$. The corresponding ${\rm Second}(p)$ is unfortunately rather more complicated.


But you should know there is nothing really special about the Kuratowski formula $$(x, y) = \{\{x\}, \{x, y\}\}.$$ It was not the first or only set-theoretic model of ordered pairs. It was preceded historically by Norbert Wiener's definition:

$$(x, y) = \{\{\{x\},\emptyset\}, \{\{y\}\}\}$$

and by Felix Hausdorff's:

$$(x, y) = \{\{1, x\}, \{2, y\}\}$$

which incidentally looks rather a lot like what you wanted to do:

identify an $𝑛$-ordered tuple as a function …with its domain $\{0,1,...,𝑛−1\}$.

Hausdorff's pair isn't a function with domain $\{1, 2\}$, but it almost looks like one, and Hausdorff's motivation was probably similar to yours. It's a very natural idea!

But there's an important technical problem with your suggestion to represent an $n$-tuple as a function. The problem is that in set theory, functions are usually modeled as sets of pairs. The function $$\begin{array}{rl} 1\to&\text{Fish} \\ 2\to&\text{Carrot} \\ \end{array}$$

is usually understood as being equal to the set

$$\{(1, \text{Fish}), (2, \text{Carrot})\}$$

Where the $(x, y)$ expressions are ordered pairs. So you have to have pairs before you have functions. If you want the ordered pairs to also be functions, you are stuck in a loop: you have defined ordered pairs as functions, but defined functions as sets of ordered pairs.

To make your idea work you would need to to find some way of defining what a function is without using ordered pairs, or you would need to make an exception for pairs, and posit that $n$-tuples should be functions when $n>2$, but are Kuratowski sets (or whatever) when $n=2$.


But now I come to the real point:

The specific definition of an ordered $n$-tuple, as a particular set, is not of very much importance.

Kuratowski's definition is most often used because in some ways it is simplest; certainly it is easy to write down. But there is nothing special about it. Notice that $(x, y) = \{\{y\}, \{x, y\}\}$ would clearly work just as well as the usual $(x,y) = \{\{x\}, \{x, y\}\}$.

What is important in set theory is only that there be some method for representing the pair $(x, y)$ as a set so that these three properties hold:

  1. $(a,b) = (c,d)$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$
  2. We can find a formula $\text{First}$ so that $\text{First}((x,y)) = x$
  3. We can find a formula $\text{Second}$ so that $\text{Second}((x,y)) = y$

Kuratowski's definition satisfies these requirements, and so do Wiener's and Hausdorff's and many others. Once we've proved that the three properties hold, we usually forget about the internal details of exactly what set is meant by $(x, y)$. Wiener's original paper says “the particular method selected of doing this is largely a matter of choice”. As long as there is some set that behaves the way we want the pair $(x, y)$ to behave, we don't actually care very much what that set is.

Here's how it was put by J.H. Conway, a famous mathematician, who seemed rather frustrated by the insistence that every entity in his theory be representable as some specific set in ZF:

It seems to us, however, that mathematics has reached the stage where formalization within some particular axiomatic theory is irrelevant… It should be possible to specify conditions on a mathematical theory which would suffice for embeddability within ZF but which do not otherwise restrict the possible constructions in that theory. … Among the permissible kinds of construction we should have:

  1. Objects may be created from earlier objects in any reasonably constructive fashion.
  2. Equality among the created objects can be any desired equivalence relation.

… We could, for instance, freely create a new object $(x, y)$ and call it the ordered pair of $x$ and $y$. We could also create an ordered pair $[x, y]$ different from $(x, y)$ but co-existing with it, and neither of these need have any relation to the set $\{\{x\}, \{x, y\}\}$.

(J.H. Conway, On Numbers and Games, 2 ed. (2001) p.66)

Finally, I would like to note that the basic philosophy of the extremely successful branch of mathematics called category theory is that these internal details matter so little that one can—and should—forget about them entirely!

In category theory, one says that a set (or other object) $C$ “is a product of $A$ and $B$”, meaning that it is something like the set of pairs of elements of $A$ and $B$. This object $C$ is considered to be such a product if two required functions $$\text{First} : C\to A\\\text{Second} : C\to B$$ exist and have certain properties that I won't go into. Whether $C$ is a set of Kuratowski pairs or Wiener pairs or something else is of absolutely no interest in category theory, so long as we can identify satisfactory $\text{First}$ and $\text{Second}$. The phrasing “$C$ is a product of $A$ and $B$” rather than “$C$ is the product of $A$ and $B$” is intended to emphasize this.

Category theory is successful precisely because it ignores the unimportant details of what is going on inside the particular project object. If it has a suitable $\text{First}$ and $\text{Second}$, that is good enough. (Category theorists usually call these $\pi_1$ and $\pi_2$, but the idea is exactly the same.)

Well, that is probably far more than you wanted to know.


(By the way, you are using the term “predicate” incorrectly. A predicate function is one that yields true or false. For example, “$x$ is an even number” is an example of a predicate, and so is “The first component of the pair $p$ is equal to $7$”. But “The first component of the pair $p$” is not a predicate.)

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