I have a purely theoretical doubt, because the references I read didn't make it so clear to me. When we are analyzing the maximum principle, two ways are suggested:
$\bullet$ (Weak maximum principle): Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be open and bounded. If $u \in C^2(\Omega) \cap C^0(\overline{\Omega})$, with $-\Delta u = 0$ in $\Omega$, then $$\max_{\overline {\Omega}} u = \max_{\partial \Omega} u.$$
$\bullet$ (Principle of Strong Maximum): Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be open and connected. If exists $x_0 \in \Omega$ such that $$u(x_0) = \displaystyle\max_{\overline{\Omega}} u,$$ then $u$ is contant in $\Omega$.
Doubt: Is it also necessary for the strong maximum principle that $\Omega$ be limited? If yes, why?
Best Answer
The proof I am aware of (Ian's comment) of Strong Maximum Principle does not use boundedness.
But anyway, suppose the Strong Maximum Principle only for bounded, open, connected sets. Let $\Omega$ be unbounded, open, and connected, with $u(x_0)=\max_{\overline \Omega}u$ for some $x_0\in\Omega$. Open connected in $\mathbb R^n$ is path connected. Let $\Omega_n$ be the open, connected set of all points in $\Omega$ which can be joined to $x_0$ by a path of length $< n$ . Now we can apply the "SMP for bounded sets" on each $\Omega_n$ to deduce $u|_{\Omega_n} \equiv u(x_0)$. As $\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty \Omega_n = \Omega$, this proves SMP for unbounded sets.
For your reference I copy the standard proof of SMP from my notes: