Dot product of vector valued function

vectors

I know that a dot product $p\cdot q$ measures the projection of parts $p$ on $q$, so that if $p$ and $q$ are orthogonal, $p\cdot q$ = 0. However, I have been wondering about whether this applies to the dot product of any arbitrary vector valued function ( with vectors as inputs) of $p$ and $q.$ Would, in general, $f(p)\cdot f(q)$ be 0 when $p$ and $q$ are orthogonal? (where $f(p)$ and $f(q)$ are any arbitrary vector valued function with vectors as inputs evaluated at $p$ and $q$)

Best Answer

No. For example, if $p,\,q$ are $n$-dimensional vectors and $A,\,B$ are $n\times n$ matrices then $Ap\cdot Bq=p\cdot(A^TB)q$ depends on $A^TB$. In particular, we could choose $A=I$, then choose $B$ so $Bq\parallel p$, so $Ap\cdot Bq\ne0$ (unless $Bq=0$).