Does this partial midpoint-convexity imply full convexity

calculusconvex-analysisexamples-counterexamplesreal-analysis

Let $f:(-\infty,0] \to \mathbb [0,\infty)$ be a $C^1$ strictly decreasing function.

Definiton:

Given $c \in (-\infty,0]$, we say that $f$ is midpoint-convex at the point $c$ if

$$
f((x+y)/2) \le (f(x) + f(y))/2,
$$

whenever $(x+y)/2=c$, $x,y \in (-\infty,0]$.

Question: Let $r<0$ be fixed, and suppose that for every $x \in [r,0]$, $f$ is midpoint-convex at $x/2$. Is $f|_{[r,0]}$ convex?

I know that $f|_{[r/2,0]}$ is convex. Indeed, the assumption implies that $f|_{[r/2,0]}$ is midpoint-convex in the usual sense, i.e.

$$
f((x+y)/2) \le (f(x) + f(y))/2,
$$

whenever $x,y \in [r/2,0]$, and midpoint-convexity plus continuity implies full convexity.

Clarification: The point is that on the one hand, we are given assumptions which are stronger than midpoint-convexity at $[r/2,0]$ (since we are given "convexity-information" on how values of $f$ on $[r/2,0]$ relate to its values on $[r,0]$ as well. On the other hand, we are assuming something weaker then midpoint-convexity on all $[r,0]$.

Best Answer

Let $r=-\pi$ and $f(x)=1-\cos x$. If $x,y\in [r,0]$ and $\tfrac{t}2=\tfrac{x+y}2\ge-\tfrac{\pi}2$ then

$$\frac{f(x)+f(y)}2-f\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)=$$ $$\cos\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)-\frac{\cos x+\cos y}2=$$ $$\cos\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)- \cos\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right) \cos\left(\frac{x-y}{2}\right)=$$ $$\cos\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)\left(1-\cos\left(\frac{x-y}{2}\right)\right)\ge 0,$$

so $f$ is midpoint convex at $t/2$ for each $t\in [r,0]$. On the other hand, since $f’’(x)=\cos x$, the function $f$ is non-convex at $[r,r/2]$. We can easily extend $f$ to a required function on $(-\infty,0]$, for instance, putting $f(x)=2+\left(\tfrac{x}{\pi}\right)^2$ for $x\le -\pi$.

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