Does it follow from the Pythagorean theorem that “there is no right-angled triangle with sides 5, 10 and 11”

geometrypythagorean triples

Assume, for the sake of this question, that we define the Pythagoeran theorem as

Theorem 1: In a right-angled triangle, the sum of the squares of the two shortest sides is equal to the square of the longest side.

Then, this theorem's converse would be

Theorem 2: If the sum of the squares of the two shortest sides is equal to the square of the longest side, the triangle is right-angled.

To make the distinction between these two theorems clearer, consider this statement which does follow from the second theorem but not from Pythagoras':

"A triangle with side lengths $3$, $4$ and $5$ is right-angled."

As for my question, from which of the two theorems does the below statement follow?

"There is no right triangle with sides $5$, $10$ and $11$.".

Best Answer

Theorem 1 is the Pythagorean theorem. Theorem 2 is its converse (not its contrapositive).

Both theorems are true.

The fact that there is no right triangle with sides $5$, $10$ and $11$ follows from the contrapositive of Theorem 1, so from Theorem 1. It's a different way of stating the same implication.