Does induction axiom really forbid “rogue” elements in natural numbers

logicpeano-axioms

I've checked formulation of Peano arithmetic second order induction axiom in several books and everywhere it is +- the same:

Let $P (n)$ be any property pertaining to a natural number n. Suppose that P (0) is true, and suppose that whenever P (n) is true, $P (n++)$ is also true. Then $P (n)$ is true for every natural number $n$.

I have checked this discussion A question on Terence Tao's representation of Peano Axioms but I still can't accept arguments from top rated answer because as for me it is actually still possible that there exist such natural numbers $a,b$ and $c$: a++ = b, b++ = c, c++ = a. After all this axiom only states that if some predicate $P$ satisfies the requirements from the axiom then I can say that $P(n)$ is true for every natural number and I understand intuition behind this axiom that $P(0)$ $\implies$ P(0++) $\implies$ P((0++)++) $\ldots$ so that it is true for all increments of 0, but I don't see in the formulation of axiom any explicit restrictions for what natural number can be. However, this formulation is used everywhere, so most likely I just do not understand something… moreover I am quite new to logic. Could you please explain to me where I'm wrong?

Addition to question:
I will outline the big picture as I see it. I assume that "true" natural numbers exist, but I would like to have a strict formal description of them in the form of a system of axioms. Such a system is Peano's system of axioms. I know that Peano's system of axioms is categorical. I also know that these axioms have been proven consistent within the ZFC axiom system. The last piece of the puzzle for me is the answer to the question: do these axioms really describe "true" natural numbers and only them? You propose to consider the predicate "not to be rogue", but this is a rather vague formulation of the predicate, I do not understand what is hidden behind it, so I do not quite trust the proof using it. An acceptable proof for me would be 1) to prove that all properties of "true" natural numbers follow from Peano's axioms 2) to prove that properties that "true" natural numbers do not have do not follow from these axioms (it is the violation of this point that should lead to the appearance of "rogue" natural numbers). I accept the 1st point, but not the 2nd point. In order to consider the 2nd point satisfied, I must be sure that whatever predicate that gives false for "true" natural numbers I take, I must be able to prove its falsity using Peano's axioms. The catch is that there are infinitely many such predicates, so you need to use some more "low-level" methods to prove it. And at this point I'm stuck, I don't know what results to rely on to prove to myself that this 2nd point is true.

Best Answer

You wrote:

I don't see in the formulation of axiom any explicit restrictions for what natural number can be.

Here are some well known, supposedly self-evident properties of the natural numbers:

  1. $0$ is a natural number
  2. Every natural number has a unique successor that is a natural number
  3. Different natural numbers have different successors
  4. $0$ is not the successor of any natural number
  5. Every natural number but $0$ itself can be reached by a process of repeated succession starting at $0$

These properties of the natural numbers can be formalized respectively in the language of set theory as follows (Peano's Axioms for $(N,S,0))$:

  1. $0\in N$
  2. $\forall x\in N: S(x) \in N$
  3. $\forall x, y \in N: [S(x)=S(y) \implies x=y]$
  4. $\forall x \in N: S(x)\neq 0$
  5. $\forall P\subset N:[0\in P \land \forall x\in P:[S(x)\in P] \implies P=N]$

Where

$N$ = the set of natural numbers

$S$ = the successor function on $N$

(1) through (4) here are straightforward translations. (5) may be not be so obvious. For what it is worth, here is formal proof (228 lines) of this equivalence for the skeptics.

Are we missing anything? Maybe some other essential properties of the natural numbers? It seems unlikely that additional axioms will be required since every algebraic system that satisfies Peano's Axioms as listed above will essentially be the be the same system, only the names will differ.

Informally, we can match up the elements of $N$ and $N'$ quite naturally as follows:

$$0 \longleftrightarrow 0'$$

$$S(0) \longleftrightarrow S'(0)$$

$$S(S(0)) \longleftrightarrow S'(S'(0'))$$

$$\vdots$$

This matching up would be uniquely given by the function f mapping $N$ to $N'$ such that:

$$f: N\to N'$$

$$f(0)=0'$$

$$\forall a\in N: f(S(a))=S'(f(a))$$

Not for the faint of heart, you can find formal proof of this here (723 lines).

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