Logic – Does $\\exists x\\forall yQ(x,y) \\to \\forall y\\exists xQ(x,y)$?

logic

Consider the following examples,

  1. $x$ loves $y$, where $x$ and $y$ are humans

somebody loves everybody $\to$ everybody is loved by somebody

  1. $x$ can open $y$, where $x$ are keys and $y$ are locks

some keys can open all locks $\to$ all locks can be opened by some keys

But does "$\exists x\forall yQ(x,y) \to \forall y\exists xQ(x,y)$" always hold true?

Best Answer

Yes.

One way to prove this is by using a proof tree. You start with the negation of the formula in question then apply a series of contradiction hunting rules to show that, no matter what, that negation is false, like so:

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This tree was generated here.