Does $E[X] \geq E[Y]$ imply $E[\max(a, X)] \geq E[\max(a, Y)]$ for nonnegative random variables $X$ and $Y$ and a constant $a >0$?
Here is what I have tried: We know $E[\max(a, X)] \geq E[X]$ and similar for $Y$. This says that $E[X]$ and $E[Y]$ are lower bounds for the respective $\max()$ functions. Therefore $\cdots$.
(This approach can be used to show that $E[X] \geq E[Y]$ implies $E[\max(a, X)] \geq E[\min(a, Y)]$ (note "min"), for example.)
If the statement is true, I think we can use the convexity of the $\max()$ function here, or maybe Markov's inequality.
Best Answer
Try for example
Then