Group Theory – Finite Index Subgroup with Free Abelianisation

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Let $G$ be a finitely presented group. Does there exist a finite index subgroup $H$ such that its abelianisation $H^{\text{ab}} = H/[H, H]$ is free abelian?

Note, if $G^{\text{ab}}$ is not already free abelian, then it is non-zero and surjects onto a non-trivial finite group, so $G$ admits a finite index subgroup.

My motivation comes from compact manifolds. If $M$ is a compact manifold, then $\pi_1(M)$ is finitely presented and its abelianisation is $H_1(M; \mathbb{Z})$ which is a finitely generated abelian group which may have torsion. A finite index subgroup of $\pi_1(M)$ corresponds to a finite cover $N \to M$. So my question above is asking whether I can take a finite cover $N$ of $M$ such that $H_1(N; \mathbb{Z})$ is torsion-free.

If $M = k\mathbb{RP}^2$ is a non-orientable surface, then $H_1(M; \mathbb{Z}) \cong \mathbb{Z}^{k-1}\oplus\mathbb{Z}_2$. Its orientable double cover $N = \Sigma_{k-1}$ has $H_1(N; \mathbb{Z}) \cong \mathbb{Z}^{2k-2}$ which is torsion-free. This example shows that the rank of $H_1$ can change by passing to covers (in terms of groups, the rank of the abelianisation can change by passing to finite index subgroups).

If $G$ is virtually free, then of course the answer is yes. Nilpotent groups also have the desired finite index subgroups, see this MO question. In this case, more is true. Namely, the finite index subgroup $H$ can be chosen so that $H^{\text{ab}}$ has the same rank as $G^{\text{ab}}$.

Best Answer

The Baumslag-Solitar group $\mathrm{BS}(1,n)$ is the group with presentation $\langle a, t \mid tat^{-1} = a^n \rangle$. It is easy to check that $\mathrm{BS}(1,n)$ has torsion in its Abelianisation when $n > 2$. Moreover, it is known that all the finite index subgroups of $\mathrm{BS}(1,n)$ are isomorphic to $\mathrm{BS}(1,m)$ for some value $m \geqslant n$. It follows that all of the finite index subgroups of $\mathrm{BS}(1,n)$ have torsion in their Abelianisation.

It might be worth mentioning that $\mathrm{BS}(1,n)$ is solvable, so the fact about nilpotent groups that you mentioned in your question does not extend to solvable groups.