Does absolute and uniform convergence imply normal convergence

complex-analysis

Let $f_n$ be a sequence of holomorphic functions defined on some compact set $K$ in $\mathbb C$ (i.e. each function in the sequence is holomorphic on some nbd of $K$).

If $\sum f_n$ converges uniformly and absolutely on $K$ then can we say it coverges normally on $K$ (i.e $\sum \Vert f_n\Vert$ is finite)?

Note- It’s very easy to construct counterexamples for smooth functions using bump functions.

I am curious about this because in J. B. Conway’s Complex Analysis book, in one lemma (Lemma 5.8, Chapter 7) needed for Weierstrass factorization theorem, he states uniform and absolute convergence in the hypothesis but uses normal convergence in the proof.

Best Answer

We can also construct counterexamples using holomorphic functions. Let $K$ be the closed unit disk, define $\zeta_n = \exp(i/n)$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\}$, and $h(z) = \frac{1}{2}(1 + z)$. Choose positive integers $m_n$ such that $$\lvert h(z)\rvert^{m_n} \leqslant 2^{-n}$$ for all $z \in K$ with $\lvert z-1\rvert \geqslant \frac{1}{10n^2}$ and put $$f_n(z) = \frac{1}{n}h(\zeta_n z)^{m_n}\,.$$ Then $\lVert f_n\rVert = \frac{1}{n}$, so the series is not normally convergent on $K$. But it is absolutely and uniformly convergent on $K$. For every $z \in K$, we have $\lvert f_n(z)\rvert \leqslant 2^{-n}$ for all but at most one $n$, so $$\sum_{n = m}^{\infty} \lvert f_n(z)\rvert \leqslant \frac{1}{m} + \sum_{n = m}^{\infty} 2^{-n} = \frac{1}{m} + 2^{1-m}\,.$$

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