I am trying to prove following theorem.Is there any flaw in following proof
consider $f:[a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $f$ is Riemann
Integrable.Now consider $\bar{f} : [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$
differing only at finite number of points from $f$i)Prove that $\bar{f}$ is Riemann Integrable
ii)$\int_{a}^{b} f = \int_{a}^{b} \bar{f}$
outline of proof is as follows :
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prove if functions differ at one point and conclude by induction
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show that $U(f)$ (upper integral of original function) is infimum of the set $\{U(\bar{f},P) : P \in \mathcal{P}\}$ and since infimum is unique, $U(f) = U(\bar{f})$
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show that $L(f)$ (lower integral of original function) is supremum of the set $\{L(\bar{f},P): P \in \mathcal{P}\}$ and since supremum is unique $L(f) = L(\bar{f})$
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since $f$ is integrable we will have that $L(\bar{f}) = U(\bar{f})$ proving the both results.
let $x_0$ be the point at which they differ and $D = |\bar{f}(x_0) – f(x_0)|$
first note that since $U(f) = \inf \{ U(f,P) : P \in \mathcal{P}\}$ there exists $P_{0}$ s.t $U(f) > U(f,P_{0}) – \epsilon/2$ now consider refinement of parition $P_{0}$ as $P' = P_{0} \,\cup \{x- \frac{\epsilon}{4D} , x + \frac{\epsilon}{4D} \}$.but we know that $U(\bar{f} , P') – U(f,P') \leq 2. D.\frac{\epsilon}{4D} = \epsilon/2 $
now,
$ = U(f)$
$ > U(f , P_{0}) – \epsilon/2$ because we choose $P_0$ that way
$ \geq U(f,P') – \epsilon/2$ cause $P'$ is refinement of $P_{0}$
$ \geq U(\bar{f},P') – \epsilon/2 – \epsilon/2$
$ = U(\bar{f} , P') – \epsilon$
since this holds for arbitrary $\epsilon$ we have that $U(f) = \inf\{U(\bar{f},P) : P \in \mathcal{P}\}$ similarly we can show that $L(f) = \sup\{L(\bar{f},P) : P \in \mathcal{P}\} $ and we are done.
Best Answer
I think your proof is fine.
Alternately, note that you could make things very simple :
Prove that the functions $\{1_{\{c\}} : c \in [a,b]\}$ where $1_{\{c\}}$ is the indicator function of $\{c\}$, are Riemann integrable and have Riemann integral zero. This is much easier to do, because you can choose your partitions and compute the upper and lower sum obviously.
From here, obviously by scaling, functions of the form $L 1_{\{c\}}$ are integrable for any number $L$, and their integral is zero.
Suppose $\bar f$ differs from $f$ at finitely many points. Then $\bar f - f$ is a finite sum $\sum_{i=1}^N L_i1_{x_i}$, which is Riemann integrable with integral zero. It follows that $\bar f$ is integrable with the same integral as $f$.
EDIT : That the Riemann integral of $1_{\{c\}}$ over $[a,b]$, for $c \in [a,b]$ is zero, follows by considering the partition $P_{\epsilon} : a<c-\epsilon<c+\epsilon<b$ of mesh size $\epsilon$ (for $\epsilon>0$ small enough), which is such that $U(1_{\{c\}},P_{\epsilon}) =2\epsilon$ and $L(f,P_{\epsilon}) = 0$. Therefore, by taking $\epsilon \to 0$, we must have $U(f) \leq 0$, while $L(f) \geq 0$. Hence, $U(f) = L(f)$, as desired.