Difficult Integral Involving the Dirac Delta Function

dirac deltahyperbolic-functionsintegrationlaplace transform

Hello fellow Stack heads,

I am stuck on a difficult integral that almost looks like it can be accomplished with a one-sided Laplace transform but more than likely can be solved using Dirac Delta simplification techniques. I must confirm that

$$I=\displaystyle{\int_{0}^{-\infty}}dx\,\delta(\cos(x))e^{-x}=\dfrac{1}{2\sinh\bigg(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\bigg)}.$$

Here is what I have so far using a previous question:

$\delta(\cos(x))\Rightarrow g(x)=\cos(x)=0 \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}(2n+1), \text{ where } n\in\mathbb{Z}_{+}\cup\{0\}.$ Then $g'(x)=-\sin(x).$ So I have $$I=\displaystyle{\int_{0}^{-\infty}}dx\,\dfrac{\delta[x-\dfrac{\pi}{2}(2n+1)]}{\big\lvert\,-\sin(\dfrac{\pi}{2}(2n+1))\big\rvert}e^{-x}=\dfrac{1}{2\sinh\bigg(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\bigg)}.$$ Now I am SOL. Do I proceed with a Laplace Transform? Please help me by providing a hint and I will finish the problem and arrive at the solution with honor and dignity. Thank you all for your help and your time.

Best Answer

You have that $$ \int_0^{+\infty}{\delta(\cos x)e^{-x}dx}=\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}{e^{-\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+n\pi\right)}}=\frac{e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}}{1-e^{-\pi}}=\frac{1}{2\mathrm{sh}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)} $$