Details of how many 3-element subsets of $\{1, 2, …, 20\}$ exist such that no two consecutive integers are in the same subset

combinatoricsdiscrete mathematics

I do realize that an answer exists already (https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1421851/797279), however I was wondering why we do not divide by $3!$, such that the formula becomes $$\binom{20}{3} – \frac{19 \cdot 18}{3!} + 18$$

My reasoning is that when we choose a $3$-element subset with consecutive elements we go about it in such a process:

  • There are $19$ integers with consecutive numbers, thus we have $19$ choices for the first element
  • We then have $1$ choice for the second element as we want it to be consecutive number of the first element
  • We now have $18$ choices to work with for the third element
  • Order doesn't matter for the set thus we divide by the number of ways to permute the elements

Best Answer

You don't divide by $3!$ because your way of choosing the triplets is in $1-1$ correspondance with the sets you are looking for.

Let me explain it a bit more in detail:

Frist, let us look at the case where in the set $\{a,b,c\}$ only $2$ of the elements are consecutive, that is (after relabeling if needed) $\{a,b,b+1\}$ with $a\neq b-1$, $a\neq b+2$. There is only one way you could have chosen that particular set.

For the sets of the form $\{a,a+1,a+2\}$ is a bit different because there are (exactly) $2$ ways you could have chosen this particular set. That is the reason of the last "$+18$" in the formula.