Derivative with Respect to a Variable Times Constant? And Then Factoring-Out That Constant as a Fraction

partial derivativepartial differential equationsreal-analysis

I have the PDE $\dfrac{\partial{T}}{\partial{t}} = \alpha \dfrac{1}{r} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\left( r \dfrac{\partial{T}}{\partial{r}} \right)$

I have done change of variables and now have $r^* = \dfrac{r}{a}$, $\dfrac{\partial{T}}{\partial{t}} = \dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}}$, and $\dfrac{\partial{T}}{\partial{r}} = \dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{a} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{r^*}}$.

I am told that the original PDE can be rewritten as $\dfrac{1}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}} = \dfrac{\alpha}{a^2 r^*} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{r^*}} \left( r^* \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{r^*}} \right)$.

Doing the necessary substitutions, if my calculations are correct, we get

$$\dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}} = \dfrac{\alpha}{r^* a} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\left( r^* a \left[ \dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{a} \dfrac{ \partial{u} }{ \partial{r^*} } \right] \right)$$

And, if it is correct to do so (?), we substitute $r = r^* a$ into $\dfrac{ \partial }{ \partial{r}}$ to get

$$\dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}} = \dfrac{\alpha}{r^* a} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{(r^* a)}}\left( r^* a \left[ \dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{a} \dfrac{ \partial{u} }{ \partial{r^*} } \right] \right)$$

I have never seen such a thing, so I have no idea if this is even mathematically correct, but assuming it is, in order to get the rewritten PDE, we would have to factor out the $a$ to get

$$\dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}} = \dfrac{\alpha}{a^2 r^*} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{r^*}}\left( r^* a \left[ \dfrac{(T_i – T_w)}{a} \dfrac{ \partial{u} }{ \partial{r^*} } \right] \right)$$

And doing the necessary cancellations, we get

$$\dfrac{1}{t_0} \dfrac{\partial{u}}{\partial{t^*}} = \dfrac{\alpha}{a^2 r^*} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{r^*}}\left( r^* \dfrac{ \partial{u} }{ \partial{r^*} } \right)$$

But, as I said, I have never seen someone differentiating with respect to a variable multiplied by a constant, and then factoring out the constant as the fraction $\dfrac{1}{a}$ ($a$ in this case). Can someone please explain whether or not this is valid and why?

Best Answer

It is perfectly possible, to show you why use the chain rule. Here's (perhaps) a simpler version, call

\begin{eqnarray} T &=& (T_i - T_w)u \\ r &=& a r^* \\ t &=& t_0 t^* \end{eqnarray}

So that

$$ \frac{\partial }{\partial r} = \frac{{\rm d}r^*}{{\rm d}r}\frac{\partial }{\partial r^*} = \frac{{\rm d}(r/a)}{{\rm d}r}\frac{\partial}{\partial r^*} = \frac{1}{a}\frac{\partial}{\partial r^*} $$

Similarly

$$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t} = \frac{1}{t_0}\frac{\partial}{\partial t^*} $$

And your equation becomes

\begin{eqnarray} \require{cancel} \frac{1}{t_0}\frac{\partial}{\partial t^*}[\color{blue}{\cancel{(T_i - T_w)}}u] &=& \frac{\alpha}{a^2}\frac{1}{r^*}\frac{\partial }{\partial r^*}\left( \frac{\color{red}{\cancel{a}} r^*}{\color{red}{\cancel{a}}} \frac{\partial }{\partial r^*}[\color{blue}{\cancel{(T_i - T_w)}}u]\right) \\ \implies~~\frac{1}{t_0} \frac{\partial u}{\partial t^*} &=& \frac{\alpha}{a^2} \frac{1}{r^*}\frac{\partial}{\partial r^*}\left(r^* \frac{\partial u}{\partial r^*} \right) \end{eqnarray}

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