Under which conditions on the integrand is it possible to differentiate under the integral
$$
\frac{d}{dx}\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x,y)\, dy=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\partial}{\partial x}f(x,y)\, dy?
$$
I know Leibniz rule. But here, the integration over $\mathbb{R}$ irritates me and I dont know how to make sure that Leibniz Rule works.
Best Answer
If you want to differentiate at a point $x$ you need to verify :