Derivative of inverse function using $dx/dy$ – what is going on here

calculusderivativesinverseinverse function

I'm about to learn about differentiating inverse functions at school, and the formula we're being told we'll be using is [assuming $g(x)=f^{-1}(x)$]:

$$f'(x)=\frac{1}{g'(f(x))}$$

In other places online, however, I have seen a much simpler formula, $dx/dy * dy/dx = 1$. (I am quite interested in Leibniz notation, as the old intuitive ideas often stun me in their elegance.)

However, here I cannot for the life of me figure out the connection between the Leibniz notation above and the more complicated "prime" notation above. I have searched far and wide across the Internet, but am still confused. Can anyone explain? How would I calculate the derivative of an inverse function using Leibniz notation, and how does that connect to the process of computing an inverse function's derivative using "prime" notation?

Best Answer

Note that $y=f(x)$, $x=g(y)$ $$\begin{align} \frac{dy}{dx}\cdot\frac{dx}{dy}&=1\\ \frac{dy}{dx}&=\frac{1}{\frac{dx}{dy}} \\ \frac{df(x)}{dx}=\frac{1}{\frac{dg(y)}{dy}} \\ f'(x)=\frac{1}{g'(f(x))} \end{align}$$

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