Definite integral $\int_0^{\pi} \sin^{n} x \ln(\sin x) dx$

definite integralsintegration

Is the integral
$$I(n) = \int_0^{\pi} \sin^{n}(x) \ln(\sin(x)) dx$$
analytically tractable for $n \in \mathbb{N}$? If not, are there good upper and lower bounds?


To clarify, although this has a fairly standard-looking form, I haven't been able to find an answer anywhere and I've tried a few of the usual tricks (although I'm a tad rusty).

I have tried integration by parts to reduce to a simpler or recursive form but this seems to make the expression more complex, and likewise with the substitution $u=\sin(x)$.


Equally, it is relatively easy to see that the expression under the integral is non-positive. Taking a derivative
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \sin^{n}(x) \ln(\sin(x)) = \sin^{n-1}(x) \cos(x) (1 + n \ln(\sin(x))) = 0$$
gives a has minimum at $-\frac{1}{en}$.

Together these give the reasonably simple bounds: $$-\frac{\pi}{en} < I(n) < 0.$$

But numerically these don't appear to be particularly tight, so I'm still hopeful of an exact solution or an improvement.

Best Answer

Integrate by parts to obtain a recursive formula as follows

\begin{align} I_n&=\int_0^{\pi} \sin^{n}x \ln(\sin x) dx\\ &= -\int_0^{\pi} \sin^{n-1}x \ln(\sin x)\> d(\cos x)\>\\ & =\int_0^{\pi}((n-1) \sin^{n-2}x \cos^2x\ln(\sin x)+ \sin^{n-2}x\cos^2x)dx\\ &= (n-1) (I_{n-2}-I_n)+ \frac1{n-1}\int_0^{\pi}\sin^{n}x\>dx \end{align} Thus $$I_n = \frac{n-1}n I_{n-2} +\frac1{n(n-1)} \int_0^{\pi}\sin^{n}x\>dx $$ with $I_0 = -\pi\ln2$ and $I_1= \ln2 -1$. (See here for evaluating $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^{n}x\>dx$.)