Question Let $X$ be a set and let $(Y, \tau)$ be a topological space. Let $g:X \to Y$ be a given map. Define $$\tau'=\{U \subset X~|~ U=g^{-1}(V) ~\text{for some} ~V \in \tau\}.$$ Which of the following statements are true?
$\tau'$ defines a topology on $X$.
$\tau'$ defines a topology on $X$ only if $g$ is onto.
Let $g$ be onto. Then the quotient space of $X$ with respect to this relation, with the topology inherited from $\tau'$, is homeomorphic to $(Y, \tau)$.
My Attempt.
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True. (I just check the axioms of topology and it satisfied by $\tau'$)
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False. (It doesn't require "onto" ness anywhere in the proof of 1. Although I don't have any counter example).
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Let $g$ be Onto. $x \sim y\text{ iff }g(x)=g(y) $ Then $\sim$ defines an equivalence relation on $X$. Let the set of all $\sim$equivalence classes is $X^*=\{[x]~|~x \in X\}$. Give the quotient topology on $X^*$. And $p:X \to X^*$ defined by $x\mapsto [x]$ be the quotient map.
I try to find out an Homeomorphism between $X^*$ to $(Y,\tau)$.
Define $~f: X^* \to (Y,\tau)$ by following rule: for any $[x]\in X^*, p^{-1}([x])$ is basically all elements in $X$ that are equivalent to $x$ w.r.to $\sim$. Hence $g(p^{-1}([x]))$ is a singleton set in $Y$. Call that element to be $f([x])$. Also $f$ is well defined here can be verified using the fact that $x \sim y ~iff~ g(x)=g(y) $. Here also $fp=g$. And since $g$ is continuous surjection so $f$ becomes continuous and bijection: In fact, Let $U $ be open in $Y$, then $p^{-1}(f^{-1}(U))=g^{-1}(U)$ is open in X. Since $p$ is quotient map then $f^{-1}(U)$ is open in $X^*$. Hence $f$ is continuous. Also it can be proved that $f$ is bijection. Now I try to prove $f$ to be open map but I can't. I think it require $g$ to be a quotient map…
How can I proceed further . ..? Thanks .
Best Answer