Could someone verify the proof that if $f:(a,b) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is uniformly continuous, then $f$ is bounded

proof-verificationreal-analysisuniform-continuity

For my proof, I had to inverse the definitions for uniform continuity and sequence convergence, so it feels a bit sketchy to me. I'd also appreciate suggestions if you have any.

Let $f:(a,b) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be uniformly continuous. For the sake of contradiction, assume $f$ is unbounded. Let the sequences $a_n \rightarrow a$, $b_n \rightarrow b$, and $x_n \rightarrow x_0 \in (a,b)$. Since $f$ is continuous, then $f(x_n) \rightarrow f(x_0) \in \mathbb{R}$. Since $f$ is unbounded, then either of the sequence $f(a_n),f(b_n)$ must diverge, otherwise $f$ would be bounded. Without loss of generality, assume the sequence $b_n$ diverges. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous, then for $\epsilon > 0$, there exists $\delta > 0$ such that $|x-y|<\delta$ implies $|f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$ for $x,y \in (a,b)$. Let $\delta > 0$. Since $b_n \rightarrow b$, then there exists some $N \in \mathbb{N}$ where $|b-b_n|<\delta$ for $n \geq N$. Restrict $x \in (a,b)$ such that $b_n<x<b$. Then $|x-b_n|<\delta$. Since $f(b_n)$ diverges, then there exists some $\epsilon > 0$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}$ with $n \geq N$ such that $|f(x)-f(b_n)| \geq \epsilon$. Therefore we can write for $|x – b_n|<\delta$ and $|f(x)-f(b_n)| \geq \epsilon$. Therefore $f$ is not uniformly continuous. This is a contradiction since $f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore $f$ is bounded.

Best Answer

Your argument doesn't work. Consider the function $\frac{\sin\left(\frac1x\right)}x$. It is unbounded near $0$. However, if $a_n=\frac1{n\pi}$, then $\lim_{n\to\infty}f(a_n)=0$.

Here's a proof. There is a $\delta>0$ such that $\lvert x-y\rvert<\delta\implies\bigl\lvert f(x)-f(y)\bigr\vert<1$. Now, consider points $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_N\in(a,b)$ such that $a<a_1<a_2<\cdots<a_N<b$ and that $a_1-a,a_2-a_1,\ldots,b-a_M<\delta$. Then, if $x,y\in(a,b)$ and $x<y$, there are numbers $k<l\leqslant N$ such that $a_{k-1}<x\leqslant a_k$ and $a_{l-1}<y\leqslant a_l$. But then\begin{align}\lvert f(x)-f(y)\bigr\vert&\leqslant\overbrace{\bigl\lvert f(x)-f(a_k)\bigr\rvert}^{<1}+\overbrace{\bigl\lvert f(a_k)-f(a_{k+1})\bigr\rvert}^{<1}+\cdots+\overbrace{\bigl\lvert f(a_l)-f(y)\bigr\rvert}^{<1}\\&\leqslant l-k+1.\end{align}

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