Convergence of Euler’s definition of the Gamma function

complex-analysisconvergence-divergencegamma function

I was reading the wikipedia article on the Gamma function and found out that the original definition of it was… quite clever actualy. Here's the article. Anyway the definition is

$$
\Gamma(z) = \frac{1}{z}\prod_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(1+1/n)^z}{1+z/n}
$$

Actually, he defined

$$
z! = \prod_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(1+1/n)^z}{1+z/n}
$$

the reason why this is an apropriate is on this article I've mentioned.

Well knowing Euler, he probably just tossed it on his letter to Goldbach and called it done. Nowadays, however, we need to check for convergence. As we know we have to check for which $z\in \mathbb{C}$ (if any) satisfty

$$
\sum_{n=1}^\infty z\log(1+1/n) – \log(1+z/n) < \infty
$$

Now I'm stuck.

I'm thinking perhaps to use the power series

$$
\log(1+w) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n}w^n
$$

But this would only work for $|z| < 2$ and I was a little more optimistic about it. Even if we use this I don't know how to use a Fubini like argument here, without knowing convergence a priori.

So the question is: for which $z\in \mathbb{C}$ does the above product (series) converge?

Best Answer

Since $\frac z n \rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow+\infty$, $$\log(1+\frac z n) =\frac z n +\mathcal O\left ( \frac 1 {n^2}\right )$$ Likewise, $$z\log(1+\frac 1 n) =\frac z n +\mathcal O\left ( \frac 1 {n^2}\right )$$ Finally, $$z\log(1+\frac 1n)-\log(1+\frac z n) =\mathcal O\left ( \frac 1 {n^2}\right )$$ And therefore the sum converges for all $z$ where its terms are defined, that is if $z$ is not a negative integer.