Confusion about applying rule of inference for set theory

discrete mathematicselementary-set-theorylogic

Why we can apply rule of inference for set theory even we don't know the truth value of proposition,as the book mentioned that if the premise is false,after applying the rule of inference,the conseqence may not to be true.

For example,
we need to prove that A⋂B⊆A,but we don't know the truth value of set,since it can be the empty set.

$$A⋂B $$

$$x∈A∧x∈B (\text {logic form: } p∧q)$$

$$x∈A$$

(we apply rule of inference: simplification)

$$A⋂B ⊆A$$

i am wonder that why we can apply rule of inference even we don't know the truth value of premise.

Another example, Dad is sleeping and mum is hunting,lets p be dad is sleeping and q be mum is hunting.

$$p∧q$$
$$p$$

Then we can get the right consequnce that Dad is sleeping,because we know the premise is true.

Best Answer

A set has no truth value: it is a (mathematical) object.

Syntactically, $A \cap B$ is a term, i.e. a "name" of a set (names have reference but not truth value).

A statement about sets (in the context of a specified theory about sets) has a truth value.

$A \cap B \subseteq A$ is a statement asserting that "the set resulting from the intersection of two sets $A$ and $B$ is a subset of set $A$".

The statement to which we have to apply the rules of inference is "$x \in A \cap B$" (it is a statement because has the form: "name-Relation-name", like e.g. "John is son of Peter").

The proof works this way: "$x$ is element of $A \cap B$" is our starting point.

By definition of "intersection of sets" ($\cap$) we have that: "$x$ is element of $A$ and $x$ is element of $B$".

Using Simplification we get:

"$x$ is element of $A$".

In symbols:

1) $x \in A \cap B$ --- premise: $x$ is an element whatever

2) $(x \in A) \land (x \in B)$ --- from 1) unwinding the definition of set intersection ($\cap$)

3) $x \in A$ --- from 2) by Simplification

4) $(x \in A \cap B) \to (x \in A)$ --- from 1) and 4) by Conditional Proof

5) $\forall x \ [(x \in A \cap B) \to (x \in A)]$ --- from 4) by Universal Generalization

6) $(A \cap B) \subseteq A$ --- from 5) using the definition of set inclusion ($\subseteq$).


What happens if $A$ is the emptyset ?

The proof still holds, in a simplified form.

We can jump directly to step 4): if $A= \emptyset$, then $x \in (A \cap B)$ is False and thus the conditional $(x \in A \cap B) \to (x \in A)$ is True (because: $\text F \to \text F$ is $\text T$).

Thus, either $A$ is empty, and thus proceed as above, or $A$ is not empty, and thus pick an element $x$ whatever in it (for sure there is one) and use the full proof above.