Just stuck trying to evaluate a certain integral for the following question.
Let $(X,Y)$ be a bivariate random variable with joint probability density function:
$$
f_{X,Y}(x,y)
= \begin{cases}
\frac{6y}{x^2} &\text{for }\quad 0<x<1,\quad 0<y<x^2\\
0, &\text{elsewhere}
\end{cases}
$$
Compute the marginal probability density functions for $X$ and $Y$.
I'm able to compute the marginal pdf for $X$ but when I try to compute the marginal pdf for $Y$ using the following: $$f_Y(y) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X,Y}(x,y)\:dx=\int_{0}^{1}\frac{6y}{x^2}\:dx$$
I find that the rightmost integral diverges…is this, in fact, true or is there some conceptual misunderstanding on my part here?
Edit: fixed typo in the pdf
Best Answer
HINT
Can you finish?