Let $T: X \to Y$ be the following integral operator, where $f$ is just assumed to be integrable (not neccessarilly continuous):
$$(Tf)(x)=\int_0^x f(t)dt$$
In an exercise I have to check whether this operator is compact, depending on what the spaces $X$ and $Y$ are. I have already shown that it is compact in the cases where $X=Y=C[0,1]$, and when $X=L^p[0,1]$ and $Y=C[0,1]$. To do it I used the Arzela-Ascoli theorem, and checked that the image under $T$ of the unit ball of $X$ is bounded and equicontinuous.
I ran into travel however in the last part of my exercise, when $X=Y=L^p[0,1]$. This is since here, of course, I can not use the Arzela Ascoli criterion to check compactness of $T$. Hence my question is: How would you prove/disprove compactness of this operator under such spaces? What can be a convenient formulation of compactness of $T$ to check? Thanks!
Best Answer
For the case $X=Y=L^p$, $1< p\le\infty$, we will write $T$ as a norm limit of finite rank operators and deduce compactness of $T$ by the above lemma.
Let $n>1$ be an integer and partition the interval $[0,1]$ in $n$ subintervals of equal length, namely $I_{j,n}:=[\frac{j-1}{n},\frac{j}{n})$, $j=1,\dots,n$. Let $\phi_{j,n}$ denote the indicator function of $I_{j,n}$. Set $$T_n:L^p[0,1]\to L^p[0,1], \;\;\;T_n(f)=\sum_{j=1}^n\bigg(\int_0^{\frac{j}{n}}f(t)dt\bigg)\cdot\phi_{j,n}$$ Note that the operator $T_n$ has automatically finite dimensional range, since $T_n(f)$ lies in the linear span of the functions $\{\phi_{j,n}:j=1,\dots,n\}\subset L^p[0,1]$. Also,
for $x\in[0,1]$ there exists a unique $j_x\in\{1,\dots,n\}$ such that $x\in I_{j_x,n}$ so $\phi_{i,n}(x)=1$ if and only if $i=j_x$. So
$$|T_n(f)(x)|^p=\bigg|\sum_{j=1}^n\bigg(\int_0^{\frac{j}{n}}f(t)dt\bigg)\cdot\phi_{j,n}(x)\bigg|^p=\bigg|\int_0^{\frac{j_x}{n}}f(t)dt\bigg|^p\le\bigg(\int_0^1|f(t)|dt\bigg)^p\le\|f\|_p^p$$
where in the last inequality we have used the fact that $\|f\|_1\le\|f\|_p$ for $f\in L^p[0,1]$. Thus $$\|T_n(f)\|_p^p=\int_0^1|T_n(f)(x)|^pdx\le\int_0^1\|f\|_p^pdx=\|f\|_p^p$$ and thus $\|T_n\|\le1$, so $T_n$ are indeed bounded operators with finite rank.
We now show that $\|T_n-T\|_p\to0$. Indeed, we have $$|T_n(f)(x)-T(f)(x)|^p=\bigg|\sum_{j=1}^n\int_0^{\frac{j}{n}}f(t)dt\cdot \phi_{j,n}(x)-\int_0^xf(t)dt\bigg|^p=$$ $$=\bigg|\int_0^\frac{j_x}{n}f(t)dt-\int_0^xf(t)dt\bigg|^p\;\;(\star)$$ where $j_x\in\{1,\dots,n\}$ is the unique integer such that $x\in I_{j_x,n}$ (and the above equality occurs because $\phi_{j_x,n}(x)=1$ and $\phi_{i,n}(x)=0$ for $i\ne j_x$). Continuing from $(\star)$, if we denote by $q$ the conjugate exponent $(1/p+1/q=1)$, we have $$(\star)=\bigg|\int_x^{\frac{j_x}{n}}f(t)dt\bigg|^p\le\bigg|\int_0^1\chi_{I_{j_x,n}}(t)f(t)dt\bigg|^p\le$$ $$\le\bigg(\int_0^1\chi_{I_{j_x,n}}(t)\cdot|f(t)|dt\bigg)^p\le\bigg(\mu(I_{j_x,n})^{1/q}\cdot\|f\|_p\bigg)^p=\frac{1}{n^{p/q}}\cdot\|f\|_p^p$$ where we used Holder's inequality. Therefore, $$\|T_n(f)-T(f)\|_p^p=\int_0^1|T_n(f)(x)-T(f)(x)|^pdx\le\int_0^1\frac{1}{n^{p/q}}\cdot\|f\|_p^pdt=\frac{1}{n^{p/q}}\cdot\|f\|_p^p$$ and thus $\|T_n-T\|_p\le\frac{1}{n^{1/q}}$. Letting $n\to\infty$ gives $T_n\to T$.
P.S: Why it is reasonable to define the operators $T_n$ the way we did? First, we need them to have finite dimensional range. Second, we look at $T(f)(x)=\int_0^xf(t)dt$. This is a number very close to $\int_0^{j/n}f(t)dt$ for some suitable $j,n$. So it feels natural to partition the unit interval in small intervals of length $1/n$ and define $T_n(f)$ by the rule "take a $x$, determine in which small interval it lies (i.e. find the proper $j_x$), then assign the value $\int_0^{j_x/n}f(t)dx$. Implicitly we have been multiplying with $\phi_{j,n}$ and adding up, to make sure we evetually obtained the correct $j_x$. I hope this helps you understand the reasoning here.