Can rationals be approximated by increasingly large-denominator rationals

elementary-number-theoryreal-analysis

Lets denote by $A_n$ the set of all relatively prime fractions with denominator $n\,.$ Then one should observe that the members of $A_n$ become more densely populated in the real line as $n \to \infty$. To see this, note that $$A_1 = \mathbb{Z}, A_2 = \Big\{\frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{2}, \dots,\Big\},\dots,A_{56} = \Big\{\frac{1}{56},\frac{3}{56}, \frac{5}{56}, \dots\Big\},\; \dots$$

Thus, it would seem intuitively true that the statement I have proposed is true, but seeing how I could find $N \in \mathbb{N}$ so that this is true is elusive to me. Any suggestions here?

Best Answer

The way you formalised it, the answer is “yes”, but for way less trivial reasons than one might expect.

Let $x=\frac pq$ and $\epsilon$ be given. Then $\frac an$ is a valid (=in shortest terms and within $\epsilon$) approximation for $x$ iff $\frac{a-kn}n$ is a valid approximation for $x-k$, $k\in \Bbb Z$. Therefore, wlog $0\le x<1$, i.e., $0\le p<q$.

Under certain circumstances, let us replace $x$ and $\epsilon$ with “better” $x’$ and $\epsilon’$ with $0<x’<1$ and $(x’-\epsilon’, x’+\epsilon’)\subseteq (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon)$. Then a valid approximation for $x’$ is also a valid approximation for $x$. Obviously, it suffices to specify suitable $x’$ with $x<x’<\min\{1,x+\epsilon\}$ as $\epsilon’=\epsilon +x-x’$ will work.

  • If $p=0$ (i.e., $x=0$), pick $k>\frac1\epsilon$ and let $x’=\frac2{2k+1}$.
  • If $p=1$, then $q\ge2$. Pick $k>\max\{q(q-1),\frac1\epsilon\}$ and let $x^\prime=x+\frac1k=\frac{q+k}{qk}$ (not necessarily in shortest terms). Then indeed $x<x^\prime<x+\epsilon$ and $q>\frac1{x^\prime}>\frac1{\frac1q+\frac1{q(q-1)}}=q-1$ so that the numerator of $x^\prime$ is $>1$ (and also $x^\prime<1$).

By this, we may assume wlog that $p\ge2$. Then $\frac1x$ is between two naturals, $k<\frac1x<k+1$. Then we may assume wlog that $\frac1{k+1}<x-\epsilon<x+\epsilon<\frac1k$. In particular, our $\epsilon$-interval now contains no number with numerator $1$.

Let $\delta=\frac\epsilon x>0$. By the Prime Number Theorem, there exists $m_0$ such that for all $m\ge m_0$, there exists a prime between $m$ and $(1+\delta)m$. Pick $N>\max\{\frac {m_0}x,\frac1\epsilon\}$. We want to show that for every $n\ge N$, there exists a valid approximation with denominator $n$: Let $n\ge N$ and set $m=\lfloor xn\rfloor$. Then $m\ge m_0$ and there exists a prime $a$ between $m$ and $(1+\delta)m$. Then $x-\epsilon<x-\frac1n\le\frac an<(1+\delta)x=x+\epsilon$, as desired. If $\frac an$ is not in lowest terms, we can cancel the prime $a$ completely and end up with a reciprocal of a natural, which cannot be in our $\epsilon$-interval. Hence $\frac an$ is in lowest term as desired, thus completing the proof.

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