When definite integrals are amenable to exact valuation, it is typically the case that the more expedient approach involves an anti-derivative rather than the limit of a Riemann sum. Often computation of the limit may be straightforward or even trivial, but somewhat tedious, as is the case for integrals of $f: x \mapsto x$ or $f: x \mapsto x^2$.
On the other hand, integrals with simple integrands and easily recognized anti-derivatives such as $f: x\mapsto x^{-2}$ are more challenging with regard to the limit of Riemann sum -- and in that sense the Riemann sum may be "interesting."
To make this more explicit, consider computing the integral
$$\int_a^b x^{-2} \, dx = \lim_{n \to \infty}S_n$$
where
$$S_n =\frac{b-a}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}k\right)^{-2}.$$
We have
$$\frac{b-a}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}k\right)^{-1}\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}(k+1)\right)^{-1} \leqslant S_n \\ \leqslant \frac{b-a}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}k\right)^{-1}\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}(k-1)\right)^{-1},$$
and decomposing into partial fractions,
$$\sum_{k=1}^n \left\{\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}k\right)^{-1}-\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}(k+1)\right)^{-1}\right\} \leqslant S_n \\\leqslant \sum_{k=1}^n \left\{\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}(k-1)\right)^{-1}-\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}k\right)^{-1}\right\}. $$
Since the sums are telescoping, we have
$$\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}\right)^{-1}-\left(a + \frac{b-a}{n}(n+1)\right)^{-1} \leqslant S_n \leqslant a^{-1} - b^{-1}.$$
By the squeeze theorem, we get the value of the integral as
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}S_n = a^{-1} - b^{-1}.$$
An example where I found the Riemann sum an interesting and, perhaps, most expedient approach is:
Bronstein Integral 21.42
Best Answer
As suggested in the linked question and other answers posted here, you need not use equally-spaced subintervals in the partition of $[0,1]$. Instead, consider the sequence of intervals
$$\left\{\left[\left(\frac{i-1}n\right)^2, \left(\frac in\right)^2\right] \,\bigg| \, 1 \le i \le n \right\}_{n\in\Bbb N}$$
each with length $\frac{i^2}{n^2} - \frac{(i-1)^2}{n^2} = \frac{2i - 1}{n^2}$.
Then the (right-endpoint) Riemann sum is
$$\sum_{i=1}^n \sqrt{\left(\frac in\right)^2} \frac{2i-1}{n^2} = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{2i^2-i}{n^3} = \frac{(n+1)(4n-1)}{6n^2}$$
As $n\to\infty$, the sum converges to the definite integral, and we have
$$\int_0^1 \sqrt x \, dx = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(n+1)(4n-1)}{6n^2} = \frac23$$
which agrees with the known antiderivative result,
$$\int_0^1 x^{\frac12} \, dx = \frac23 x^{\frac32}\bigg|_0^1 = \frac23$$