Average of sequence random variables convergence

convergence-divergencelaw-of-large-numbersprobabilityprobability theoryweak-convergence

Let $X_1,X_2, \cdots$ be a sequence of random variables that converges to random variable $X$ almost surely OR in $L_p$ norm OR in probability OR in distribution. That is
$$X_n\stackrel{a.s.}{\longrightarrow} X$$
OR
$$X_n\stackrel{L_p}{\longrightarrow}X$$
OR
$$X_n\stackrel{\mathscr{P}}{\rightarrow} X$$
OR
$$X_n\stackrel{\mathscr{D}}{\rightarrow} X$$

Let $Y=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i$, I am interested in the convergence of the average sequence $\{Y_n\}$ in different cases. i.e. Which of the following conjectures is true?

$$X_n\stackrel{a.s.}{\longrightarrow} X \Rightarrow Y_n\stackrel{a.s.}{\longrightarrow} X$$

$$X_n\stackrel{L_p}{\longrightarrow}X\Rightarrow Y_n\stackrel{L_p}{\longrightarrow} X$$

$$X_n\stackrel{\mathscr{P}}{\rightarrow} X\Rightarrow Y_n\stackrel{\mathscr{P}}{\longrightarrow} X$$

$$X_n\stackrel{\mathscr{D}}{\rightarrow} X\Rightarrow Y_n\stackrel{\mathscr{D}}{\longrightarrow} X$$

If any one of them is incorrect, please give a specific counter example where the limit random variable $X$ is a non-degenerate variable, i.e. $X$ is not a real number(if it is possible). If there is not an $X$ could be non-degenerate, why?

(Maybe we can add a non-degenerate $X$ to the existing counter example? Namely, if $X$ is non-degenerate, then let $X_n^{\prime}=X_n-X$. Thus, we have $X_n^{\prime}\rightarrow 0$ in different modes. By the additivity of limit, it is make sense for non-degenrate case. Would it be all right? )

Many thanks.

Update: Now we know that for the arithmetic mean, case 1 and case 2 are true, meanwhile case 3 and case 4 are false.

Further, I want to know can the conclusion be extended to geometric mean, harmonic mean and quadratic mean? By the continuous mapping theorem, I think, for case 1, so does geometric mean, harmonic mean and quadratic mean as well. But I am not sure about the case 2. Moreover, for the other forms of mean, will the conclusions of the other two cases change?

Best Answer

  1. and 2. follow from the fact that if a sequence $(a_n)$ of real numbers converges to $0$, so does $\left(n^{-1}\sum_{i=1}^na_i\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$ as well.

For 3., let $(A_i)$ be a sequence of independent events such that for $2^N+1\leqslant i\leqslant 2^{N+1}$, $\Pr(A_i)=2^{-N}$. Let $X_i=i\mathbf 1_{A_i}$. Then the following inclusion holds: $$ \left\{ \frac 1{2^{N+1}}\sum_{i=1}^{2^{N+1}}X_i\geqslant \frac 12 \right\} \supset\bigcup_{i=2^N+1}^{2^{N+1}}A_i$$ and a lower bound for $\Pr\left(\bigcup_{i=2^N+1}^{2^{N+1}}A_i\right)$ can be obtained by Bonferroni's inequality, namely, $$ \Pr\left(\bigcup_{i=2^N+1}^{2^{N+1}}A_i\right)\geqslant \sum_{i=2^N+1}^{2^{N+1}}\Pr(A_i)- \sum_{2^{N}+1\leqslant i\leqslant j\leqslant 2^{N+1}}\Pr(A_i\cap A_j) $$ and using independence and the fact that $\Pr(A_i)=2^{-N}$, we get $$ \Pr\left\{ \frac 1{2^{N+1}}\sum_{i=1}^{2^{N+1}}X_i\geqslant \frac 12 \right\}\geqslant 1-\frac 12\left(1-2^{-N}\right). $$

For 4., let $X_{2i}=U$ and $X_{2i+1}=-U$, where $U$ takes the values $1$ and $-1$ with probability $1/2$.

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