Are sets in ZFC a primitive notion

elementary-set-theoryfoundationslogicset-theory

I read everywhere (including here on math.stackexchange) that the notion of set in ZFC is primitive. To my (probably mis-)understanding, though, a primitive notion is a concept that is not defined in terms of previously-defined concepts.

This is where my confusion begins. Aren't ZFC axioms there exactly to define what a set is (in first-order logic terms)? Correct me if I am wrong, but isn't something a set exactly if and only if satisfies those axioms? With those at hand, one can for example show that {1,2} is a set but the collection of all sets is not a set.

To my very uneducated brain, this is what you do with any other definition in math: you say that something is something if and only if it satisfies certain axioms.

Therefore I am wondering: how does a set differ from say, a measure of probability? For both of them, I have a bunch of axioms that formally define what they are.

I do see that $\in$ and $=$ are primitive notions because they are indeed never defined but simply appear in the ZFC axioms. However, sets do. What am I grossly misunderstanding?

Best Answer

I think the narrative that sets are a primitive notion in ZFC is slightly incorrect. A more precise statement is that ZFC never discusses a notion of “set” at all. Instead, what is discussed is “set membership”; that is the primitive notion. Saying that ZFC defines “what a set is” or “how a set behaves” is, in my view, not correct.

At best, ZFC describes how the collection of all sets behaves.

An analogy would be the axioms of a group. These axioms define how the group itself behaves. They do not talk about the nature of group elements; they only discuss how group elements are related to each other by the group operation.

Similarly, ZFC describes how a universe of sets should behave. It does not discuss the nature of individual sets; it only discusses how sets are related to each other by the set membership predicate.

Related Question