In Enderton, Elements of Set Theory, an arbitrary union axiom is written in this way.
Axiom. For any set $A$, there exist a set $B$ whose elements are exactly the members of the members of $A$.
\begin{equation}
\forall x \left[x \in B \iff \left(\exists b \in A\right)x \in b\right].
\end{equation}
This set is called $\cup A$. Hence,
\begin{equation}
x \in \cup A \iff \left(\exists b \in A\right)x \in b.
\end{equation}
I have two doubts:
-
Now, suppose that $A=\{\{x\},\{x,y\}\}$. Then, $\cup A$ is the set of
members of members of $A$. Members of $A$ are $\{x\}$ and $\{x,y\}$. Hence, $\cup A=\{x,x,y\}=\{x,y\}$. What about $\cup \cup A$? It should be the set of members of $x$ and $y$. Thereby $\cup \cup A= x \cup y$? Is it okay? -
Suppose $A=\{x,\{x,y\}\}$. Now I'm really in trouble. What is $\cup A$?
Best Answer
If $A$ is a set with two elements, then $\bigcup A$ is the union of these two elements.