We will use the conditional expectation to prove
$$\mathbb{E}(f^2(Y)) = \Phi_2\Big(\Phi^{-1}(a),\Phi^{-1}(a),b\Big)$$
We have:
$$\begin{align}
\mathbb{E}(f^2(Y))&= \mathbb{E}\left(\Phi\left(\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right)\cdot\Phi\left(\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right)\right) \\
&=\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{P}\left(\left. Z_1\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right|Y\right)\cdot\mathbb{P}\left(\left.Z_2\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right|Y\right)\right) \\
&=\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{E}\left(\left.\mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_1\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\right|Y\right)\cdot\mathbb{E}\left(\left.\mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_2\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\right|Y\right)\right)
\end{align}$$
with $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ following the standard normal distribution $\mathcal{N}(0,1)$ and being independent with each other and independent to $Y$.
Conditional on $Y$, the two indicator functions are independent, so the product of their conditional expectations is equal to the conditional expectation of their product.
$$\begin{align}
\mathbb{E}(f^2(Y)) &=\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{E}\left(\left.\mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_1\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\cdot \mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_2\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\right|Y\right)\right) \\
&=\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_1\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\cdot \mathbf{1}_{\left\{Z_2\le\frac{\Phi^{-1}(a)-\sqrt{b} Y}{\sqrt{1-b}}\right\}}\right) \\
&=\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbf{1}_{\left\{\sqrt{1-b} Z_1 +\sqrt{b} Y \le \Phi^{-1}(a)\right\}}\cdot \mathbf{1}_{\left\{\sqrt{1-b} Z_2 +\sqrt{b} Y \le \Phi^{-1}(a)\right\}}\right) \\
&=\mathbb{P}\left({\left\{\underbrace{\sqrt{1-b} Z_1 +\sqrt{b} Y}_{=: V_1} \le \Phi^{-1}(a)\right\}}\cap {\left\{\underbrace{\sqrt{1-b} Z_2 +\sqrt{b} Y}_{=: V_2} \le \Phi^{-1}(a)\right\}}\right) \\
\end{align}$$
It's easy to verify that $(V_1,V_2)$ follows a bivariate normal distribution with zero mean and covariance matrix $\Sigma= \pmatrix{1&b\\b&1}$, by consequence
$$\mathbb{E}(f^2(Y)) =\Phi\left(\pmatrix{\Phi^{-1}(a)\\\Phi^{-1}(a)}; \pmatrix{0\\0},\Sigma \right) =\Phi_2\Big(\Phi^{-1}(a),\Phi^{-1}(a),b\Big)$$
Best Answer
This actually follows just from the fact that $|g_d(x) - I| < d^{-1/8}$; since $\Phi$ is continuous at $I$ (it is in fact uniformly continuous), we can interchange the limits.