Application of Fubini theorem to a proof of the coarea formula, or why the product of $\mathcal H^{n-m}$ with $\mathcal L^m$ equals $\mathcal L^n$

fubini-tonelli-theoremsgeometric-measure-theoryintegrationlebesgue-measuremeasure-theory

While reading the proof of the coarea formula in Evans and Gariepy's book, Measure Theory and Fine Properties of Functions, I stumbled upon the following affirmation

Let $A\subseteq\mathbb R^n$ be $\mathcal L^n$-measurable, and let $P:\mathbb R^n\rightarrow\mathbb R^m$ be the orthogonal projection upon the first $m$ variables (we are supposing $n\geq m$). Then, for each $y\in\mathbb R^m$, $P^{-1}(y)$ is an $(n-m)$-dimensional affine space, a translate of $P^{-1}(0)$. Thus by Fubini's theorem,

$$y\mapsto\mathcal H^{n-m}(A\cap P^{-1}(y))\text{ is }\mathcal{L}^m\text{-measurable}$$
and
$$\int_{\mathbb R^m}\mathcal H^{n-m}(y\cap P^{-1}(y))dy=\mathcal L^n(A)$$

I understand the first application, for each $P^{-1}(y)$ divides the whole $\mathbb R^n$ into parallel $(n-m)$-dimensional slices, but I don't know how to derive the second equation. The righthand side should be equal to
$$(\mathcal H^{n-m}\times\mathcal L^m)(A)$$
rather than $\mathcal L^n(A)$.

Are the authors using that in $\mathbb R^{n-m}$ both $\mathcal H^{n-m}$ and $\mathcal L^m$ are equal? If so, why do we integrate the $(n-m)$-dimensional Hausdorff measure instead of the Lebesgue measure over $\mathbb R^m$? It doesn't seem clear to me why this choices are made at all. It seems somewhat arbitraty. I guess that the formula could be equally true if we change the roles of $\mathcal L$ with $\mathcal H$ and so forth, but that wouldn't led to a coarea-formula type of result… is that the case?

Thanks in advance for your answers.

Best Answer

You are right. They invoke $\mathcal{H}^s =\mathcal{L}^s$ on $\mathbb{R}^s$ for $s \in \mathbb{N}$. (And then the fact that Lebesgue measure splits as product of lower dimensional Lebesgue measures.)

Use of $\mathcal{H}^s$ is motivated (actually necessitated) by the fact that in the general coarea formula your preimages will not be identifiable with Euclidean spaces in any canonical way, so this notation is adopted in prediction of that and so that at the end one can compare and contrast.

Finally, you need Lebesgue measure in applying Fubini's theorem and also we like to integrate things against Lebesgue measure rather than Hausdorff measure, although ultimately they coincide.

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